Complex exponential proof using power series

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the identity \( e^{z_1} \times e^{z_2} = e^{(z_1 + z_2)} \) using power series. The proof begins with the power series expansion \( e^z = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^n}{n!} \). Participants express confusion about the transformation of the double summation into a single summation with indexed variables \( p \) and \( q \). The final expression simplifies to \( \sum_{p=0}^{\infty} \frac{(z_1 + z_2)^p}{p!} \), confirming the identity through the binomial theorem.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of power series and their convergence
  • Familiarity with the exponential function and its series expansion
  • Knowledge of the binomial theorem and its applications
  • Basic combinatorial notation, including summation indices
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the exponential function from its power series representation
  • Explore the binomial theorem and its implications in combinatorial proofs
  • Learn about manipulating double summations and changing the order of summation
  • Investigate applications of power series in complex analysis
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Mathematicians, students studying calculus or complex analysis, and anyone interested in proofs involving exponential functions and power series.

randybryan
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I need to prove that ez1 x ez2 = e(z1 + z2)

using the power series ez = (SUM FROM n=0 to infinity) zn/n!

(For some reason the Sigma operator isn't working)

In the proof I have been given, it reads

(SUM from 0 to infinity) z1n/n! x (SUM from 0 to infinity)z2m/m!

= (SUM n,m) z1nz2m/n!m!

and this is the step that I can't follow:

= (SUM from p=0 to infinity) x (SUM from q=0 to p) z1q z2(p-q)/q!(p-q)!

It may be easier to copy out onto paper using the sigma symbols rather than the ridiculous brackets, but I can't get the Sigma operator to work (like I say).

I just don't understand where the q and (p - q) have come from and how it can be split into a multiple of a sum from p=0 to infinity and q=0 to p.

If anyone can explain, I would be extremely grateful :)

= (SUM from p=0 to infinity) 1/p! (SUM from q=0 to p) p!/q! (p- q)! x z1q x z2(p-q)

= (SUM from p=0 to infinity) 1/p! (z1 + z2)p
 
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Wouldn't it be easier to prove the LHS from the RHS?

If you do the RHS you can use the binomial theorem. Does that explain where you get those terms from?
 

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