Complex permitivity of good conductors

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SUMMARY

The complex permittivity of good conductors is defined as ε = ε' - jε'', where ε' represents the real part and ε'' the imaginary part. For good conductors, the loss tangent tan δ is influenced more by conductivity σ than by displacement current, leading to the conclusion that ε'' is significantly greater than ε'. The misconception that ε' approaches infinity for good conductors is clarified; instead, ε' remains finite and does not become particularly large. For copper, the real part of permittivity varies from approximately 10^4 at k = 10^3 cm^-1 to 10 at k = 10^4 cm^-1, while the imaginary part decreases from 10^4 to 1 over the same range.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of complex permittivity and its components (ε' and ε'')
  • Familiarity with the concept of loss tangent (tan δ)
  • Knowledge of wave number (k) and its relation to permittivity
  • Basic principles of conductivity in materials
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  • Research the mathematical derivation of complex permittivity in conductors
  • Explore the relationship between conductivity and displacement current in electromagnetic theory
  • Study the frequency dependence of permittivity in various conductive materials
  • Examine the referenced paper on permittivity for further insights into optical properties of conductors
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Electrical engineers, physicists, and materials scientists interested in the electromagnetic properties of conductive materials and their applications in technology.

iVenky
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We can define complex permitivity of any medium as
Code:
[tex]\epsilon=\epsilon'-j\epsilon''[/tex]
And the loss tangent as
Code:
[tex]tan \delta = \frac{\omega \epsilon'' + \sigma}{\omega \epsilon'} [/tex]
The question that I have is for good conductors. I read that for good conductors, we are dominated by σ rather than displacement current, which makes sense. What I don't get it, for good conductors, ε''>>ε'. Why is that? I understand ε'' is dominant but ε' (=ε0εr -> ∞ since εr -> ∞ for good conductors). What's the fallacy in this logic?
 
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\epsilon' does not approach infinity for good conductors. You have been misled by the fact that letting epsilon' become infinite in a relation for a dielectric in a static electric field gives the corresponding relation for a conductor, but that is just a convenient mathematical trick. The physical epsilon' does not get particularly large in a conductor.
 
Meir Achuz said:
\epsilon' does not approach infinity for good conductors. You have been misled by the fact that letting epsilon' become infinite in a relation for a dielectric in a static electric field gives the corresponding relation for a conductor, but that is just a convenient mathematical trick. The physical epsilon' does not get particularly large in a conductor.
Thanks, how much is the epsilon for a conductor?
 
Last edited:
The imaginary part of epsilon varies from 10^4 for k=10^3 to 1 for k=10^4, so it is less than the real part.
 

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