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I have this question:

if f and [tex] f \circ g [/tex] are 1 to 1 functions, does it follow that g is 1-1 function?

My answer is NO g doesn't have to be 1-1 function.

for example ,

if g(3)=4 and g(7)=4,

then f( g(3) )= f( G(7) )=f(4) will produce the 1-1 function property.

Is my reasonning OK??

B

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# Homework Help: Composite and one to one function

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