Computing line integral using Stokes' theorem

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The discussion focuses on computing the line integral using Stokes' theorem, specifically addressing the curl of a vector field and its integration over a specified surface. The participants clarify the parametrization of the surface and the implications of choosing different values for z, concluding that the integral evaluates to 3π regardless of whether z is set to 0 or 1. They emphasize that the integral's result remains consistent due to the periodic properties of sine and cosine functions, which cancel out over a complete cycle. The conversation also touches on the unnecessary application of Stokes' theorem in this scenario, as the integral can be computed directly. Overall, the conclusion is that the answer of 3π is valid under the discussed conditions.
WMDhamnekar
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Homework Statement
Compute ## \oint_C x^2z dx + 3xdy -y^3 dz ## where C is the unit circle ##x^2 +y^2 =1## oriented counter-clockwise
Relevant Equations
##\int_C f\cdot dr = \iint\limits_\Sigma curl(f)\cdot n d\sigma##
##curl([x^2z, 3x , -y^3],[x,y,z]) =[-3y^2 ,x^2,3]##
The unit normal vector to the surface ##z(x,y)=x^2+y^2## is ##n= \frac{-2xi -2yj +k}{\sqrt{1+4x^2 +4y^2}}##
##[-3y^2,x^2,3]\cdot n= \frac{-6x^2y +6xy^2}{\sqrt{1+4x^2 + 4y^2}}##
Since ##\Sigma## can be parametrized as ##r(x,y) = xi + yj +(x^2 +y^2)k## for (x,y) in the region ##D = \{(x,y): x^2 + y^2 \leq 1\}## then,

##\begin{align*}\iint\limits_{\Sigma} (curl f) \cdot n d\sigma &= \iint\limits_{D} curl f \cdot n \parallel \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} \times \frac{\partial r}{\partial y}\parallel dA\\
&=\iint\limits_{D} 3 - 2x^2y + 6xy^2 dA\\
&= \int_0^{2*\pi}\int_0^1 (3 - 2r^3 \cos^2{(\theta)}\sin{(\theta)} + 6r^3\cos{(\theta)}\sin^2{(\theta)})r dr d\theta \\
&= 3\pi
\end {align*}##

But the answer provided by author is ##3\pi## How is that? Where I am wrong?
 
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You say that the integral is taken over the curve x^2 + y^2 = 1, but you don't specify a value for z; is z = 0 intended? The answer seems to be consistent with that, but your choice of surface has z = 1 on x^2 + y^2 = 1. Is there a reason why you did not use the surface \{ x^2 + y^2 \leq 1, z = 1 \} with unit normal \mathbf{k}?

Looking at the integral you attempted, you should have <br /> \iint_D 3 - 2x^2 y + 6xy^2\,dA = \int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^1 (3 - 2r^3 \cos^2 \theta \sin \theta + 6r^3 \cos \theta \sin^2 \theta)r\,dr\,d\theta. Have another go at it.
 
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I got the answer ##3\pi## using z=1. If I take z=0, that answer also would be ## 3\pi##.

z is the function of (x,y). ## x^2 + y^2 =1##

So, I took z = 1
 
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It is not actually necesary to use Stokes' Theorem here; assuming z is constant on C we have <br /> \begin{split}<br /> \int_C x^2z\,dx + 3x\,dy - y^3\,dz &amp;= \int_C x^2z\,dx + 3x\,dy \\<br /> &amp;= \int_0^{2\pi} -z \cos^2 \theta \sin \theta + 3\cos^2 \theta\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp;= \int_0^{2\pi} -z\tfrac{1}{2}(1 + \cos 2\theta) \sin \theta + \tfrac{3}{2}(1 + \cos 2 \theta)\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp;= \int_0^{2\pi} \tfrac 32\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp;= 3\pi\end{split} independent of z.
 
pasmith said:
It is not actually necesary to use Stokes' Theorem here; assuming z is constant on C we have <br /> \begin{split}<br /> \int_C x^2z\,dx + 3x\,dy - y^3\,dz &amp;= \int_C x^2z\,dx + 3x\,dy \\<br /> &amp;= \int_0^{2\pi} -z \cos^2 \theta \sin \theta + 3\cos^2 \theta\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp;= \int_0^{2\pi} -z\tfrac{1}{2}(1 + \cos 2\theta) \sin \theta + \tfrac{3}{2}(1 + \cos 2 \theta)\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp;= \int_0^{2\pi} \tfrac 32\,d\theta \\<br /> &amp;= 3\pi\end{split} independent of z.
You can also compute the aforesaid integral without ##x^2zdx## because z =0. Isn't it?

Why did you ignore ##1+\cos{2\theta}## in the last integral?
 
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WMDhamnekar said:
You can also compute the aforesaid integral without ##x^2zdx## because z =0. Isn't it?

The above shows that the result is the same for any z.

Why did you ignore ##1+\cos{2\theta}## in the last integral?

The integrals of cosine and sine over a whole number of periods is zero. \cos 2\theta \sin \theta can be expressed as a linear combination of \sin 3\theta and \sin \theta and its integral therefore vanishes.
 
pasmith said:
The above shows that the result is the same for any z.
The integrals of cosine and sine over a whole number of periods is zero. \cos 2\theta \sin \theta can be expressed as a linear combination of \sin 3\theta and \sin \theta and its integral therefore vanishes.
Would you tell me how would you express ##\cos2\theta \sin\theta## as a linear combination of \sin3\theta and \sin \theta ?

1670684221234.png
 
WMDhamnekar said:
Would you tell me how would you express ##\cos2\theta \sin\theta## as a linear combination of \sin3\theta and \sin \theta ?
$$\cos2\theta\sin\theta=\left(\frac{e^{2i\theta}+e^{-2i\theta}}{2}\right)\left(\frac{e^{i\theta}-e^{-i\theta}}{2i}\right)=\frac{e^{3i\theta}-e^{-3i\theta}+e^{-i\theta}-e^{i\theta}}{4i}=\frac{\sin3\theta-\sin\theta}{2}$$
 
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WMDhamnekar said:
Would you tell me how would you express ##\cos2\theta \sin\theta## as a linear combination of \sin3\theta and \sin \theta ?

Use \sin(2\theta \pm \theta) = \sin(2\theta) \cos \theta \pm \sin(\theta) \cos (2 \theta)
 
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