Suppose I set up two labs, Alice on earth and Bob in a region of intergalactic space (or maybe in a void) where the Riemann tensor is zero. I accelerate Bob's lab at 32.2 ft/sec/sec. Both measure the Riemann tensor using identical equipment. Alice will get a nonzero value for some components, Bob will get zero for all components. My understanding of the equivalence principle is that they should get identical results for all classical experiments.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks for any clarification. Skippy

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Confused about Equivalence Principle

Loading...

Similar Threads for Confused Equivalence Principle |
---|

I Black hole event horizon confusion |

I Confused about Lorentz Generators |

I Confusion about Frame Dragging |

I Confusing descriptions of an "expanding" universe |

B Confusion about time dilation symmetry in muon example |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**