Confusion about continuity question.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the continuity of a piecewise function defined as f(x) = x²/x for x≠0 and f(0) = 0. Participants are exploring the nature of discontinuities in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand why the function is considered continuous everywhere despite their belief that it has a removable discontinuity at x=0. Other participants clarify that the discontinuity is removed in the piecewise definition, leading to continuity.

Discussion Status

Participants are engaging in clarifying the concept of removable discontinuities and confirming that once such a discontinuity is addressed, the function is continuous everywhere. There is a back-and-forth exchange to ensure understanding of these concepts.

Contextual Notes

Some participants reference external sources, such as AP prep guides, which may influence their understanding of continuity and discontinuities in functions.

mathstudent79
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1.The Question

The function f(x)=


x2/x if (x≠0)



0 if(x=0)

The Attempt at a Solution

I thought this had a removable discontinuity at x=0, because the function s2/x is not defined at x=0, and the expression can be reduced to x.

The book (one of those AP prep guides with solutions) says that it is continuous everywhere, to note that x2/x if x≠0 and lim(x->0) f = 0.

Why was I wrong?

Thanks in advance.
 
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mathstudent79 said:
1.The Question

The function f(x)=

x2/x if (x≠0)

0 if(x=0)

The Attempt at a Solution



I thought this had a removable discontinuity at x=0, because the function s2/x is not defined at x=0, and the expression can be reduced to x.

The book (one of those AP prep guides with solutions) says that it is continuous everywhere, to note that x2/x if x≠0 and lim(x->0) f = 0.

Why was I wrong?

Thanks in advance.
The function g(x) = x2/x does have a removable discontinuity at x=0.

The piecewise function, f(x) that you give has that discontinuity removed. f(x) is defined for all x, and is continuous for all x, even for x = 0.
 
SammyS

Thanks so much for your quick response.


So, just to be sure, once the discontinuity is removed, the function is continuous everywhere, is that right?

Thanks again.
 
mathstudent79 said:
SammyS

Thanks so much for your quick response.


So, just to be sure, once the discontinuity is removed, the function is continuous everywhere, is that right?

Thanks again.

Yes, that's right.
 

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