selfAdjoint said:
In what way is an "unspecified non-representational experential state" not an experience? What does representation have to do with it. If the electron has an "experential state" is that represented in its Hilbert space of states? Has it eigenvalues? Can we measure or observe it and collapse its experential wavefunction? Come on!
You portrayed what I wrote as saying that an atom might have a "quale of being in a molecule." Perhaps I read too much into that strange phrasing, but it sounds as if you take this to mean that an atom might have an experience that it is part of a molecule, similar to how I might have an experience that I am part of an extended environment. But that implies that the experience has intentional content-- that the atom's experience is 'about' being in a molecule. That is not what I meant to say at all. What I meant to say in this hypothetical example was that there might be some minimal sense in which it is like something to be an atom, and that the atom's primitive experience might covary with some aspect of its physical/functional state, just as our more advanced experiences covary with some aspect of the brain's physical/functional state.
Of course, I am not committed to believing that atoms really do experience in this way. This was just a hypothetical example designed to show how the principle of covariance of human brain function and human subjective experience might be generalized to non-cognitive systems in nature.
Could an atom's experience be measured? No more so than a human's experience can be measured. If we could somehow measure subjective experience, then consciousness would not be so controversial, and could be exhaustively explained with a scientific treatment. As this is not the case, if we want to try to understand consciousness, we must necessarily move beyond what can strictly be shown or implied by science, at least for the time being.
No I'm saying phooey to the desperate need to erect a phony reification of ongoing neural processing, trying to save transcendence from ever encroaching neurological research, and in order to "find a place" for that improper construction, to do violence not only to physics but to common sense.
In what sense do you mean 'reification'? Is it inconsistent to view qualia fundamentally as a process and still believe in the relevance of the hard problem?
As for a 'desperate need' to 'save transcendence from ever encroaching neurological research,' sorry, but that is nothing more than a bad caricature. You would do better to focus on the merit of the arguments than try to create 'phony' psychological diagnoses of everyone who happens to disagree with your worldview. The findings of neuroscience are embraced by anyone who is serious about studying the mind; what is at issue is what these findings reveal to us, what they can entail, and how these things can account for what we know from first person experience.
What violence is done to physics? As far as I can tell, the only philosophical view of consciousness that does violence to physics is interactionist dualism. One does not have to be an interactionist dualist to deny physicalism, and "A Place for Consciousness" is not a book about interactionist dualism. Physical
ism is contested, but physicalism is a philosophical worldview, an interpretation of physics. One can be an antiphysicalist and retain the utmost respect for physics.
Bringing common sense into the argument does not do you any good either. General relativity and quantum physics do considerable violence to common sense. On the other hand, if you want to talk about common sense being violated, I can think of no greater offender than eliminativist materialism.