Convergence of Integral: How to Prove for 0<k<1?

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SUMMARY

The integral \(\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{e^{kx}}{1+e^{x}}dx\) converges for \(0 < k < 1\). To prove this, one must demonstrate that the integral is dominated by another convergent integral. The discussion emphasizes analyzing the integral over two separate intervals: \(\int_0^\infty\) and \(\int_{-\infty}^0\), applying different overestimates for each interval to establish finiteness.

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  • Understanding of improper integrals
  • Familiarity with the Dominated Convergence Theorem
  • Knowledge of exponential functions and their limits
  • Ability to perform limit analysis on integrals
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  • Learn techniques for estimating integrals over infinite intervals
  • Examine convergence criteria for improper integrals
  • Explore the behavior of exponential functions at infinity
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying real analysis or calculus, as well as educators looking for methods to teach convergence of integrals.

rioo
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Homework Statement


Show that [itex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{e^{kx}}{1+e^{x}}dx[/itex] converges if [itex]0<k<1[/itex]


Homework Equations


None


The Attempt at a Solution


Well if I can show that the integral is dominated by another that converges then I'm done, but I haven't been able to come up with one. I've tried manipulating the integrand (moving the [itex]e^{kx}[/itex] to the bottom and checking limits. The integrand does go to zero at [itex]-\infty \mathrm{and\ } \infty[/itex], but that doesn't guarantee convergence...
 
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rioo said:

Homework Statement


Show that [itex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{e^{kx}}{1+e^{x}}dx[/itex] converges if [itex]0<k<1[/itex]


Homework Equations


None


The Attempt at a Solution


Well if I can show that the integral is dominated by another that converges then I'm done, but I haven't been able to come up with one. I've tried manipulating the integrand (moving the [itex]e^{kx}[/itex] to the bottom and checking limits. The integrand does go to zero at [itex]-\infty \mathrm{and\ } \infty[/itex], but that doesn't guarantee convergence...

Look at the two cases ##\int_0^\infty## and ##\int_{-\infty}^0## separately and use different overestimates on the different intervals. If you can show they are both finite you are done.
 

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