Convergence of Integral: How to Prove for 0<k<1?

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rioo
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Homework Statement


Show that [itex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{e^{kx}}{1+e^{x}}dx[/itex] converges if [itex]0<k<1[/itex]


Homework Equations


None


The Attempt at a Solution


Well if I can show that the integral is dominated by another that converges then I'm done, but I haven't been able to come up with one. I've tried manipulating the integrand (moving the [itex]e^{kx}[/itex] to the bottom and checking limits. The integrand does go to zero at [itex]-\infty \mathrm{and\ } \infty[/itex], but that doesn't guarantee convergence...
 
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rioo said:

Homework Statement


Show that [itex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{e^{kx}}{1+e^{x}}dx[/itex] converges if [itex]0<k<1[/itex]


Homework Equations


None


The Attempt at a Solution


Well if I can show that the integral is dominated by another that converges then I'm done, but I haven't been able to come up with one. I've tried manipulating the integrand (moving the [itex]e^{kx}[/itex] to the bottom and checking limits. The integrand does go to zero at [itex]-\infty \mathrm{and\ } \infty[/itex], but that doesn't guarantee convergence...

Look at the two cases ##\int_0^\infty## and ##\int_{-\infty}^0## separately and use different overestimates on the different intervals. If you can show they are both finite you are done.