1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data Show that the sequence real-valued functions fn(x) = sin(x/n) converges uniformly to f(x) = 0 on A=[0,pi] 2. Relevant equations I don't believe there are any 3. The attempt at a solution Well, my first thought was that if x/n = pi then sin(x/n) is obviously going to be zero. I really can't get past that, I mean it seems like stating that and that if x/n is any multiple of pi then sin(x/n) will be zero. I guess I can't see past the obvious and into how this problem might actually be challenging.