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I Coupling Spin-0 and spin-1 fields

  1. Mar 23, 2016 #1
    My question is, how does one get a wave function for a 'combined' spin-1 and a spin-0 field? How is this possible? I have only been able to find combined states for equal spin identical particles.

    If you don't understand my question, I'll be glad to reword it.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 23, 2016 #2

    dextercioby

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    What do you mean "combined spin 1 and spin 0"? A direct product state, or a linear superposition? The latter doesn't exist.
     
  4. Mar 24, 2016 #3
    Basically, if they were one object. I suppose like a multi particle wave function. What would the Direct product state be like?
     
  5. Mar 25, 2016 #4

    Demystifier

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    It would be something like
    ##\Psi^{\mu}(x,y)=\phi(x) \psi^{\mu}(y)##
     
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