- #1

Happiness

- 690

- 31

Why can't the general state, in the presence of coupling, take the form $$\psi_-(r)\chi_++\psi_+(r)\chi_-$$ where ##\psi_+(r)## and ##\psi_-(r)## are respectively the symmetric and anti-symmetric part of the wave function, and ##\chi_+## and ##\chi_-## are respectively the spinors representing spin up and spin down? In other words, why must the "coefficient" of the spin-up spinor be symmetric, in the presence of coupling?

Reference: Intro to QM, David J Griffiths, p210