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I'm not sure if there is a consensus accepted explanation for the three waves of the 1918 inflenza pandemic. Here are two articles that present differing explanations (one suggests individuals' behavioral responses and the other suggests the emergence of new variants), both of which are relevant to the current pandemic:artis said:So speaking about pandemic waves , do all virus pandemics follows a trend where the first wave is somewhat smaller, then the second wave is a killer and by each next wave the severity and numbers fall down ?
I hope this is the case for Covid, but it also seems to have been the case for the infamous and deadly "Spanish flu" and back then we did not have any vaccines but it seems that the path still resembles that of the current Covid even with us now having tons more safety gear and drugs and vaccines.
I would love some clever opinions on this one.
Inferring the causes of the three waves of the 1918 influenza pandemic in England and Wales
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3730600/
Study suggests 1918 flu waves were caused by 'distinct' viruses
https://www.cidrap.umn.edu/news-per...s-1918-flu-waves-were-caused-distinct-viruses
IMO, the first article seems to reflect what may be going on now. Essentially, they model behavioral responses as populations instituting/following social distancing measures when deaths are high (lowering transmission) and relaxing these measures when deaths are low (increasing transmission), which is able to recapitulate the course of the pandemic quite well. The fact that each wave was associated with different variants does not necessarily mean that the variants were causal for the different waves (indeed, given that viruses mutate over time, one would expect different waves to have viruses carrying different set of mutations).


