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I noted that if f : C \to C[\itex] is holomorphic in a subset D \in C[\itex], then \nabla \by \hat{f} = 0, \nabla \dot \hat{f} = 0[\itex]. Moreover, those two expressions are equivalent to the Cauchy-Riemann equations.<br />
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I'm rewriting this in plaintext, in case latex doesn't render properly. I'm not sure if I'm using it correctly.<br />
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If f : C -> C is holomorphic in a subset D in C, then div conj(f) = 0, and rot conj(f) = 0, where conj(f) is the complex conjugate of f. These expressions should be though of formally, admitting that f(x+iy) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y) "=" (u(x, y), v(x, y)). Note that this is exactly the same as saying that the Cauchy-Riemann equations are satisfied.<br />
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So does this show up somewhere? Is it an important consequence? Does it have any physical interpretation?