Definite integrals and areas under the curve

In summary: So, the theorem tells you that the limit of f(x) as x approaches G is equal to the limit of f(g(n)) as n goes to infinity. In this case, the limit of f(x) is equal to the limit of f(g(n)) because b/2n=theta and theta/sin(theta)=2.
  • #1
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Homework Statement


Find the area under the cosine curve y=cosx from x=0 to x=b, where 0 is less than b is less than or equal to pi/2.

Homework Equations


[tex]\Sigma[/tex]cos kx = [sin(1/2)(nx) cos(1/2)(n+1)x]/sin(1/2)x

The Attempt at a Solution


I let n be a large integer and divided the interval [0,b] by n equal subintervals of length b/n.

The heights of the subintervals are:

cos(b/n), cos(2b/n), ..., cos(nb/n)

So, the sum of the areas of these subintervals (rectangles) is:

Sn=cos(b/n)(b/n) + cos(2b/n)(b/n) + ..., + cos(nb/n)(b/n)

Using the formula Sn=[tex]\Sigma[/tex]cos kx = [sin(1/2)(nx) cos(1/2)(n+1)x]/sin(1/2)x, with x=b/n, I got:

Area=the limit as n approaches infinity of Sn

Substituting x=b/n, Sn=(b/n)[sin(b/2)*cos((n+1)b/2n)]/sin(b/2n)

Now, this is where I get confused. I get odd results when I apply the limit n approaches infinity:

In the numerator, the cos becomes cos(b/2(1+1/n)), which approaches cos(b/2) as n approaches infinity. So, the numerator is sin(b/2)cos(b/2). In the denominator, sin(b/2n) approaches sin0 as n approaches infinity and sin0=0. There's something wrong with my denominator, I think. Also, the whole quotient is multiplied by (b/n), which would make the quotient approach 0 as n approaches infinity, right?

The book says the following:

If we make theta = b/2n, then theta approaches 0 as n approaches infinity, and using the limit as theta approaches 0 of sin(theta)/theta we see that:

(b/n)(1/sin(b/2n) = 2(b/2n)/sin(b/2n) = 2(theta/sin(theta)), which approaches 2 as n approaches infinity. The book says that these facts lead the the answer: area=to the limit as n approaches infinity of Sn = 2sin(b/2)cos(b/2)=sin(b).

I don't understand the operations in the line above--can someone explain? I don't see how (b/n)(1/sin(b/2n) = 2(b/2n)/sin(b/2n); where did that 2 come from?
 
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  • #2
The limit the book refers to is

[tex]\lim_{\theta\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin \theta} {\theta}=1[/tex]

Note that the denominator is what appears in the argument of the sine function. In your problem, you have something similar:

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\frac{b}{n}}{sin\frac{b}{2n}}[/tex]

but the numerator doesn't match the argument of the sine exactly. To use the previous result, you have to make them match, so you get

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\frac{b}{n}}{\sin\frac{b}{2n}}=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{2(\frac{b}{2n})}{\sin\frac{b}{2n}}=2 \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\frac{b}{2n}}{\sin\frac{b}{2n}}=2[/tex]
 
  • #3
Thank you, vela; your comment was very helpful, but I have a related question.

Before your comment, I got as far as this:

limit as n approaches infinity of (b/n)[sin(b/2)cos(b/2)]/sin(b/2n)

Now I see that I can multiply the equation by one (2/2) and reorganize it as follows:

(2b/2n)(1/sin(b/2n))sin(b/2)(cos(b/2)

Setting b/2n=theta and applying the limit as theta approaches 0 of theta/sin(theta), I get the book's answer: 2sin(b/2)cos(b/2)=sin(b).

The only thing I'm still a little unclear on is how I know to apply that second limit, given that the only limit suggested by the equation I set up is n approaches infinity. Applying the second limit seems a significant change to the equation, unlike multiplying it by (2/2).
 
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  • #4
You know because when you let n go to infinity, you end up with something that looks like 0/(sin 0). What you're really doing is finding the limit of f(g(n)) as n goes to infinity. There's a theorem that tells you this is equal to the limit of f(x) as x approaches G, where G is the limit of g(n) as n goes to infinity. In this problem, f(x)=x/(sin x) and g(n)=b/2n.
 

1. What is a definite integral?

A definite integral is a mathematical concept that represents the area under a curve between two points on a graph. It is denoted by ∫f(x)dx and is calculated by finding the limit of a sum of infinitely small rectangles under the curve.

2. How is a definite integral different from an indefinite integral?

A definite integral has specific limits of integration, which means it calculates the area under the curve between two points. An indefinite integral, on the other hand, does not have specific limits and represents a family of functions that differ only by a constant.

3. What is the relationship between a definite integral and the antiderivative?

The fundamental theorem of calculus states that the definite integral of a function f(x) can be calculated by finding its antiderivative F(x) and evaluating it at the upper and lower limits of integration. In other words, the definite integral is the difference between the antiderivatives at the upper and lower limits.

4. How can definite integrals be used in real-life applications?

Definite integrals have various applications in real life, including calculating areas and volumes, determining displacement and distance traveled, and finding the average value of a function. They are also used in physics, engineering, and economics to model and analyze real-world problems.

5. Can a definite integral be negative?

Yes, a definite integral can be negative if the curve lies below the x-axis between the limits of integration. This simply means that the area under the curve is below the x-axis and is considered negative. However, the absolute value of the definite integral represents the actual area under the curve, regardless of its sign.

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