Definite integrals and areas under the curve

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the area under the cosine curve defined by the function y=cos(x) from x=0 to x=b, where b is constrained between 0 and π/2. Participants are exploring the application of definite integrals and limits in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use Riemann sums to approximate the area under the curve, leading to confusion regarding the limit process and the behavior of the sine function as n approaches infinity. Other participants discuss the necessary adjustments to match the arguments in the limit and clarify the application of the limit theorem.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, providing insights and clarifications. Some have offered helpful guidance regarding the limits and the manipulation of expressions, while others are questioning the reasoning behind certain steps and the application of limits.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing exploration of the assumptions related to the limit processes and the behavior of trigonometric functions as arguments approach zero. The discussion reflects a need for clarity on the relationship between the variables involved in the limit and the sine function.

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Homework Statement


Find the area under the cosine curve y=cosx from x=0 to x=b, where 0 is less than b is less than or equal to pi/2.

Homework Equations


[tex]\Sigma[/tex]cos kx = [sin(1/2)(nx) cos(1/2)(n+1)x]/sin(1/2)x

The Attempt at a Solution


I let n be a large integer and divided the interval [0,b] by n equal subintervals of length b/n.

The heights of the subintervals are:

cos(b/n), cos(2b/n), ..., cos(nb/n)

So, the sum of the areas of these subintervals (rectangles) is:

Sn=cos(b/n)(b/n) + cos(2b/n)(b/n) + ..., + cos(nb/n)(b/n)

Using the formula Sn=[tex]\Sigma[/tex]cos kx = [sin(1/2)(nx) cos(1/2)(n+1)x]/sin(1/2)x, with x=b/n, I got:

Area=the limit as n approaches infinity of Sn

Substituting x=b/n, Sn=(b/n)[sin(b/2)*cos((n+1)b/2n)]/sin(b/2n)

Now, this is where I get confused. I get odd results when I apply the limit n approaches infinity:

In the numerator, the cos becomes cos(b/2(1+1/n)), which approaches cos(b/2) as n approaches infinity. So, the numerator is sin(b/2)cos(b/2). In the denominator, sin(b/2n) approaches sin0 as n approaches infinity and sin0=0. There's something wrong with my denominator, I think. Also, the whole quotient is multiplied by (b/n), which would make the quotient approach 0 as n approaches infinity, right?

The book says the following:

If we make theta = b/2n, then theta approaches 0 as n approaches infinity, and using the limit as theta approaches 0 of sin(theta)/theta we see that:

(b/n)(1/sin(b/2n) = 2(b/2n)/sin(b/2n) = 2(theta/sin(theta)), which approaches 2 as n approaches infinity. The book says that these facts lead the the answer: area=to the limit as n approaches infinity of Sn = 2sin(b/2)cos(b/2)=sin(b).

I don't understand the operations in the line above--can someone explain? I don't see how (b/n)(1/sin(b/2n) = 2(b/2n)/sin(b/2n); where did that 2 come from?
 
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The limit the book refers to is

[tex]\lim_{\theta\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin \theta} {\theta}=1[/tex]

Note that the denominator is what appears in the argument of the sine function. In your problem, you have something similar:

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\frac{b}{n}}{sin\frac{b}{2n}}[/tex]

but the numerator doesn't match the argument of the sine exactly. To use the previous result, you have to make them match, so you get

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\frac{b}{n}}{\sin\frac{b}{2n}}=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{2(\frac{b}{2n})}{\sin\frac{b}{2n}}=2 \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{\frac{b}{2n}}{\sin\frac{b}{2n}}=2[/tex]
 
Thank you, vela; your comment was very helpful, but I have a related question.

Before your comment, I got as far as this:

limit as n approaches infinity of (b/n)[sin(b/2)cos(b/2)]/sin(b/2n)

Now I see that I can multiply the equation by one (2/2) and reorganize it as follows:

(2b/2n)(1/sin(b/2n))sin(b/2)(cos(b/2)

Setting b/2n=theta and applying the limit as theta approaches 0 of theta/sin(theta), I get the book's answer: 2sin(b/2)cos(b/2)=sin(b).

The only thing I'm still a little unclear on is how I know to apply that second limit, given that the only limit suggested by the equation I set up is n approaches infinity. Applying the second limit seems a significant change to the equation, unlike multiplying it by (2/2).
 
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You know because when you let n go to infinity, you end up with something that looks like 0/(sin 0). What you're really doing is finding the limit of f(g(n)) as n goes to infinity. There's a theorem that tells you this is equal to the limit of f(x) as x approaches G, where G is the limit of g(n) as n goes to infinity. In this problem, f(x)=x/(sin x) and g(n)=b/2n.
 

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