What is a semialgebra and how does it work in set theory?

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A semialgebra is defined as a collection of sets that is closed under intersection and where the complement of any set in the collection can be expressed as a finite disjoint union of sets from the collection. The confusion arises from the interpretation of disjoint unions and complements, particularly when considering intervals in the real line. The example provided illustrates that the complement of the interval (0,1] can be expressed as a union of disjoint sets, despite initial misinterpretations. Clarification indicates that a disjoint union simply requires the sets to be disjoint, not necessarily to belong to a higher-dimensional space. The discussion concludes with a question about resolving the issue of representing complements with intervals that extend to infinity.
LeonhardEuler
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Probably a stupid question here, but I've been beating myself up over it and can't find a resolution. I'm reading a book (Probability: Theory and Examples by Rick Durrett) that defines a semialgebra as:

Durrett said:
A collection of sets S is said to be a semialgebra if (i) it is closed under intersection, and (ii) if S is an element of S, then Sc is a finite disjoint union of sets in S.

Already, this seems extremely odd to me because the compliment of a set belongs to the same space as the set itself. The disjoint union introduces another index to each element, if I am understanding that correctly as according to http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DisjointUnion.html" . So unless we are dealing with strange sets that include elements of different dimensions, I don't see how this is possible. The book then goes on to show that I clearly have misunderstood something because it then gives an example of a semialgebra:

Durrett said:
An important example of a semialgebra is Rdo = the collection of sets of the form

(a1,b1]X ... X(ad,bd] , a subset of Rd where -\infty \leq a_{i} < b_{i} \leq \infty

But if i look at the interval (0,1] in R, then its compliment is
(-\infty,0] \cup (1,\infty)
Which is a union of intervals of the real line, not a disjoint union. A disjoint union would seem to have sets of the form (-\infty,0] \times {{0}} which don't belong to the real line at all.

Where am I going wrong?
 
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A disjoint union is a union of disjoint sets, so what you wrote is indeed a disjoint union of two intervals.
 
What about what it says in those two links? I have not seen that definition of a disjoint union.
 
LeonhardEuler said:
What about what it says in those two links? I have not seen that definition of a disjoint union.

Ignore that Wikipedia page. It is irrelevant for this problem. In this problem, a "disjoint union" of sets is a union of sets where the sets are disjoint.
 
g_edgar said:
Ignore that Wikipedia page. It is irrelevant for this problem. In this problem, a "disjoint union" of sets is a union of sets where the sets are disjoint.

Well that makes a lot more sense then. The last part that confuses me is that I can only write the compliment of that set with an interval that extends to +infinity which is right open, not right closed. How is this problem resolved.
 
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