momogiri
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I just have a quick question on derivatives
If I was to take [tex]\frac{d}{dt}[/tex] of V = pi*h*r^2, the pi would be 0, right? Since pi is a constant, and derivatives of constants are 0, right?
In need of some confirmation, thanks :D
If I was to take [tex]\frac{d}{dt}[/tex] of V = pi*h*r^2, the pi would be 0, right? Since pi is a constant, and derivatives of constants are 0, right?
In need of some confirmation, thanks :D
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