Deriving the Lorentz Transformation from the Homogeneity of Spacetime

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving the Lorentz transformation based on the principles of homogeneity and isotropy of spacetime, as well as the equivalence of different inertial frames in the context of special relativity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of homogeneity and isotropy on the transformation functions, questioning how to demonstrate that certain functions are equal. There is mention of using properties of 1-parameter Lie groups to derive relationships between transformation parameters.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing different perspectives and approaches. Some express uncertainty about the provided solutions and offer to share alternative derivations, indicating a productive exchange of ideas without reaching a consensus.

Contextual Notes

There is a reference to a specific solution that some participants find questionable, and the original poster is seeking clarification on certain aspects of the transformation derivation.

hgandh
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Homework Statement


Show that the isotropy and homogeneity of space-time and equivalence of different inertial frames (first postulate of relativity) require that the most general transformation between the space-time coordinates (x, y, z, t) and (x', y', z', t') is the linear transformation,
x'=f(v2)x-vf(v2)t; t'=g(v2)t-vh(v2)x; y'=y; z'=z
and its inverse,
x=f(v2)x'+vf(v2)t'; t=g(v2)t'+vh(v2)x'; y=y'; z'=z'

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Now, I know that homogeneity implies that the transformation must be linear in x and t and that the isotropy of space implies that the coefficients can only be functions of the magnitude of the velocity (not the direction) at most. Therefore, I am stuck at the following:
x'=f(v2)x-vf0(v2)t; t'=g(v2)t-vh(v2)x; y'=y; z'=z
However, I am having trouble proving that f = f0. The solution I am looking at says that this follows from the homogeneity of space-time but I am having trouble using that fact to prove it.
 
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Hmm. Which source/solution are you looking at? (Can you post a reference or link?)

In my derivation of this stuff, the result that ##f = f_0## emerges from the properties of any 1-parameter Lie group (which is what you're deriving here). I.e., 2 successive transformations (in the same direction) with different parameters ##v,v'## must commute. This imposes some constraints on the various functions.
 
strangerep said:
Hmm. Which source/solution are you looking at? (Can you post a reference or link?)

In my derivation of this stuff, the result that ##f = f_0## emerges from the properties of any 1-parameter Lie group (which is what you're deriving here). I.e., 2 successive transformations (in the same direction) with different parameters ##v,v'## must commute. This imposes some constraints on the various functions.
http://faculty.uml.edu/cbaird/all_homework_solutions/Jackson_11_1_Homework_Solution.pdf
 
Hmm. (Sigh.) Well, I will say that I think there are some unnecessary fudges in that solution. So I'm not sure how I can usefully help you. I could (possibly) show you (a version of) my derivation, but it would be rather different from the solution you've been given.
 

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