alingy1
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I agree, the integral/Riemann sum method should be the easiest way to solve this, and most likely it's what the author of the question intended.alingy1 said:Jbunnii, i followed the site. Apparently that method is similar to integration by parts and it looks quite complicated!
I think this clarified that i must aimply use the integral which is quite easy to do with integration by parts!
Thanks for the help!
There's a key error here: That ##a_nb_n## should be ##a_nB_n##. This should bejbunniii said:Then we have to evaluate the limit of this sum:
$$\begin{align}
\frac{1}{n^2}\sum_{i=1}^n a_i b_i
&= \frac{1}{n^2} \left(a_n b_n - \sum_{i=1}^{n-1}B_i (a_{i+1}-a_i)\right) \end{align}$$
Good catch, thanks!D H said:There's a key error here: That ##a_nb_n## should be ##a_nB_n##. This should be
[tex]\frac{1}{n^2}\sum_{i=1}^n a_i b_i <br /> = \frac{1}{n^2} \left(a_n B_n - \sum_{i=1}^{n-1}B_i (a_{i+1}-a_i)\right)[/tex]