- #1
kolleamm
- 477
- 44
Online it says that the integral is the opposite of the derivative. So x^2 is the integral of 2x.
So if f(x) = x^2 , does that mean that the integral is just the function itself? Basically whatever f(x) equals?
Thanks in advance
So if f(x) = x^2 , does that mean that the integral is just the function itself? Basically whatever f(x) equals?
Thanks in advance