Differentials in R^n .... Another Remark by Browder, Section 8.2 .... ....

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This discussion focuses on Section 8.2 of Andrew Browder's "Mathematical Analysis: An Introduction," specifically addressing the logic behind Browder's remark regarding differentiable maps. The key takeaway is that by setting \( h = tk \) and allowing \( t \to 0 \), one can demonstrate that \( Lk = Mk \) for a fixed nonzero vector \( k \). This approach clarifies the distinction between fixed and variable vectors, leading to the conclusion that \( Lk - Mk = 0 \) when \( |k| \neq 0 \).

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I am reading Andrew Browder's book: "Mathematical Analysis: An Introduction" ... ...

I am currently reading Chapter 8: Differentiable Maps and am specifically focused on Section 8.2 Differentials ... ...

I need some further help in fully understanding some remarks by Browder made after Definition 8.9 ...

Definition 8.9 and the following remark read as follows:

View attachment 9408

In the above Remark by Browder we read the following:

"for any fixed $$k \neq 0$$ and $$t \gt 0$$, we have $$\frac{1}{ |tk| }( L(tk) - M(tk) ) = \frac{1}{|k|},(Lk - Mk )$$ ... ... ... "
My questions are as follows:Question 1

Browder puts $$h = tk$$ and then let's $$t \to 0$$ ... why is Browder doing this ... what is the logic behind this ... what do we gain by putting $$h = tk$$ ... both $$h$$ and $$k \in \mathbb{R}^n $$ and also isn't $$h$$ just as arbitrary as $$k$$ ... ?
Question 2

How exactly (and in detail) does letting $$t \to 0$$ allow us to conclude that $$Lk = Mk$$ ...
Help will be much appreciated ...

Peter
 

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Peter said:
In the above Remark by Browder we read the following:

"for any fixed $$k \neq 0$$ and $$t \gt 0$$, we have $$\frac{1}{ |tk| }( L(tk) - M(tk) ) = \frac{1}{|k|},(Lk - Mk )$$ ... ... ... "
My questions are as follows:Question 1

Browder puts $$h = tk$$ and then let's $$t \to 0$$ ... why is Browder doing this ... what is the logic behind this ... what do we gain by putting $$h = tk$$ ... both $$h$$ and $$k \in \mathbb{R}^n $$ and also isn't $$h$$ just as arbitrary as $$k$$ ... ?
Question 2

How exactly (and in detail) does letting $$t \to 0$$ allow us to conclude that $$Lk = Mk$$ ...
You need to make a clear distinction between fixed and variable vectors. In the equation $$\lim_{h\to0}\frac1{|h|}(Lh - Mh) = 0$$, $h$ has to be a variable vector that converges to $0$. But $k$ is a fixed (nonzero) vector. if $h=tk$ then $h$ varies as $t$ varies. And as $t$ goes to $0$, $h$ also goes to $0$. So you can conclude that $$\lim_{t\to0}\frac1{|tk|}(L(tk) - M(tk)) = 0$$. But $$\frac1{|tk|}(L(tk) - M(tk)) = \frac1{|k|}(Lk-Mk)$$, which is constant. It follows that$$ \frac1{|k|}(Lk-Mk) = 0$$, and since $|k|$ is nonzero the conclusion is that $Lk-Mk = 0$.
 
Opalg said:
You need to make a clear distinction between fixed and variable vectors. In the equation $$\lim_{h\to0}\frac1{|h|}(Lh - Mh) = 0$$, $h$ has to be a variable vector that converges to $0$. But $k$ is a fixed (nonzero) vector. if $h=tk$ then $h$ varies as $t$ varies. And as $t$ goes to $0$, $h$ also goes to $0$. So you can conclude that $$\lim_{t\to0}\frac1{|tk|}(L(tk) - M(tk)) = 0$$. But $$\frac1{|tk|}(L(tk) - M(tk)) = \frac1{|k|}(Lk-Mk)$$, which is constant. It follows that$$ \frac1{|k|}(Lk-Mk) = 0$$, and since $|k|$ is nonzero the conclusion is that $Lk-Mk = 0$.
Thanks Opalg ...

Appreciate your help ...

Peter
 

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