Discrete uniform distribution prrof

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof of the expected value and variance of a discrete uniform distribution. The probability mass function is defined as p(k) = Pr{X=k} = 1/n for k = 1, 2, ..., n. The expected value E(X) is calculated using the formula E(X) = (1/n) * (1 + 2 + ... + n), resulting in E(X) = (n + 1)/2. Variance Var(X) is derived using the relationship Var(X) = E(X^2) - (E(X))^2, where E(X^2) is computed as (1/n) * (1^2 + 2^2 + ... + n^2).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of discrete uniform distribution
  • Familiarity with summation formulas for \sum_{k=1}^n k and \sum_{k=1}^n k^2
  • Basic knowledge of probability mass functions
  • Concept of mathematical induction
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the summation formulas for \sum_{k=1}^n k and \sum_{k=1}^n k^2
  • Learn about mathematical induction and its applications in proofs
  • Explore the properties of variance and standard deviation in probability distributions
  • Investigate other types of probability distributions, such as normal and binomial distributions
USEFUL FOR

High school students studying probability, educators teaching statistics, and anyone interested in understanding the mathematical foundations of discrete uniform distributions.

synkk
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Hello, I'm currently in high school and going over discrete uniform distribution, and we've come across this formula. I'm curious if anyone could show me how the formula is true, as when I asked my teacher he just said that it'll confuse the class and we don't need to know why it's true.

If anyone could show me a proof or something i'd be very grateful :)
 
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synkk said:
2wcmiaf.png


Hello, I'm currently in high school and going over discrete uniform distribution, and we've come across this formula. I'm curious if anyone could show me how the formula is true, as when I asked my teacher he just said that it'll confuse the class and we don't need to know why it's true.

If anyone could show me a proof or something i'd be very grateful :)

You can do it directly if you know formulas for \sum_{k=1}^n k \text{ and } \sum_{k=1}^n k^2, and these can be found on-line, for example. Another way is to prove the results by induction (although I don't know if you have studied that, yet).

Let's just do it directly for the E(X). The probability mass function is p(k) = \Pr \{X=k\} = 1/n, for k = 1, 2, ..., n . The expected value is *defined* as E(X) = 1\cdot p(1) + 2 \cdot p(2) + 3 \cdot p(3) + \cdots + n \cdot p(n) = \frac{1}{n}[1 + 2 + \cdots + n]. This last summation is 1+2+ \cdots +n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}, so we we get the stated result.

Getting \text{Var}(X) is more complicated, but you can use the easily-proven fact that \text{Var}(X) = E(X^2) - (EX)^2, and so reduce the problem to finding E(X^2) = p(1) \cdot 1^1 + p(2) \cdot 2^2 + \cdots + p(n) \cdot n^2 = \frac{1}{n} [ 1^2 + 2^2 + \cdots n^2].

RGV
 

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