Disproof derivative of integral

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the validity of an assertion regarding the derivative of an integral, specifically examining the expression (d/dx)(integral of f(t)dt from 0 to x^4) and its comparison to integral of (d/dt)(f(t))dt from 0 to x^4. Participants are exploring the conditions under which these expressions may or may not be equal, focusing on the implications for various functions f.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the derivation of expressions related to the derivative of the integral and question the validity of the original assumption for all functions. Some suggest that the assertion may only hold for a specific subset of functions. Others propose starting from the definition of the integral and applying the chain rule to evaluate the derivative.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights and questioning the assumptions made in the original post. There is an exploration of specific functions that could serve as counterexamples to the assertion, but no consensus has been reached on a definitive approach or solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original assertion may not apply universally to all differentiable functions, indicating a need to clarify the conditions under which the equality holds or fails.

alingy1
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Disproof:
(d/dx)(integral of f(t)dt from 0 to x^4)=integral of (d/dt)(f(t))dt from 0 to x^4

I arrived here:

4(x^3)f(x^4)=f(x^4)-f(0)

I am stuck!
Please give clues. I don't understand how I can disproof this.
 
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The original assumption is not valid for any function f, but only for a small club of functions such that

f(x^4) = f(0)/(1-4x^3)

where f(0) is an arbitrary constant.
 
Show:
$$\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{x^4} f(t)\text{d}t \neq \int_0^{x^4}\frac{d}{dt}f(t)\text{d}t$$

You got as far as

$$4x^3f(u)+f(0)=f(u): u=x^4$$

As maajdl points out, this means that you now have a condition that must be met that makes the expression true. But the expression is asserted to be true for any f(t) not just some specific subset.

It is that assertion which is false.
 
I think, it's much easier to start from the definition
[tex]F(u)=\int_0^{u} \mathrm{d} x f(x).[/tex]
Then you can use the chain rule and the fundamental theorem of calculus to evaluate
[tex]\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d} x} F(x^4)[/tex]
to get the correct derivative asked for.
 
Didn't he just do that?
 
No, obviously not :-)).
 
He was asked to disproof that

expr1 = expr2

where, as he derived:

expr1 == D[F[x^4],x] = 4 x^3 f(x^4)
expr2 == Integrate[D[f[t],t],{t,0,x^4}] = f[x^4] - f[0]
 
Simon Bridge said:
Show:
$$\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{x^4} f(t)\text{d}t \neq \int_0^{x^4}\frac{d}{dt}f(t)\text{d}t$$
That is not what the problem is asking for. It's easy to find an f(t) such that the above inequality becomes an equality.

There's a huge difference between ##\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{x^4} f(t)\,dt \neq \int_0^{x^4}\frac{d}{dt}f(t)\,dt\,\,\forall\,f(t) \in C^1## (the two expressions are unequal to one another for all differentiable functions f(t)) and ##\neg \left(\,\forall\,f(t) \in C^1: \frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{x^4} f(t)\,dt = \int_0^{x^4}\frac{d}{dt}f(t)\,dt\right)## (it is not the case that for all differentiable functions the two expressions are equal to one another). The former means the two expressions are never equal, no matter what f(t) is. The latter merely means that this equality is not an identity.

One way to disprove the conjecture is to find some function f(t) for which the equality does not hold. alingy1, can you find a simple function f(t) for which ##4x^3f(x^4) \ne f(x^4)-f(0)## ?

vanhees71 said:
No, obviously not :-)).
Yes, obviously he did. The left hand side of the equality in the original post is your ##\frac{d}{dx}F(x^4)##.
 
alingy1 said:
Disproof:
(d/dx)(integral of f(t)dt from 0 to x^4)=integral of (d/dt)(f(t))dt from 0 to x^4

I arrived here:

4(x^3)f(x^4)=f(x^4)-f(0)

I am stuck!
Please give clues. I don't understand how I can disproof this.

What happens for [itex]f: x \mapsto 1[/itex]?
 

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