Distance formula and addition of meters per s

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around understanding the formula for distance traveled under constant acceleration, specifically d=(Vi+Vf)/2*t. The user struggles with calculating the distance by summing the distances traveled each second, leading to confusion about when the object reaches its final velocity. They realize that acceleration is a continuous process, not something that occurs only at the end of each second. The correct approach involves using the average velocity for each second interval rather than summing individual distances directly. This clarification helps reconcile their calculations and improves their understanding of constant acceleration.
booga
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Hello guys.

I have issues understanding a rather simple physics concept and I hope you can help me out. I've tried asking help from several people, but nobody was able to isolate the problem.
For constant acceleration, it is said that d=(Vi+Vf)/2*t. d being distance, Vi is initial velocity, Vf is final velocity and t is time of the travel.

The problem occurs when I try to add - what seems intuitively for me atleast - the distance of object traveled each second with the added velocity from the constant acceleration.

An example, object starts at 10m/s and after 10 seconds reach a velocity of 20m/s.
150 = (10+20)/2*10, and (20-10)/10 = 1, so acceleration is 1m/s/s.

Now when I try to add the distance traveled of each second over a duration of 10 seconds, I get 10+11+12+13+14+15+16+17+18+19 = 145. I don't add 20 because to my understanding the object doesn't actually travel any seconds with 20m/s, it merely reaches that velocity after going a full second at 19m/s.

So I can't the results to match each other, only if I do something like (10+19)/2*10.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
booga said:
Now when I try to add the distance traveled of each second over a duration of 10 seconds, I get 10+11+12+13+14+15+16+17+18+19 = 145.
Use the same formula for each 1-second interval that you used for the 10-second interval:
In the first second, d = (10 + 11)/2 * 1 = 10.5 (not 10). And so on, for each interval.
 
I see. So just to pinpoint where my intuition is wrong; that by adding the way I did, I assumed the acceleration only occurs after each second. It's more of a constant "push" toward the object, that happens during the seconds itself.

Thanks for the help.
 
Hello! Let's say I have a cavity resonant at 10 GHz with a Q factor of 1000. Given the Lorentzian shape of the cavity, I can also drive the cavity at, say 100 MHz. Of course the response will be very very weak, but non-zero given that the Loretzian shape never really reaches zero. I am trying to understand how are the magnetic and electric field distributions of the field at 100 MHz relative to the ones at 10 GHz? In particular, if inside the cavity I have some structure, such as 2 plates...

Similar threads

Back
Top