Distinct Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors in Matrix Multiplication

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Let A be an nxn mx with n distinct eigenvalues and let B be an nxn mx with AB=BA. if X is an eigenvector of A, show that BX is zero or is an eigenvector of A with the same eigenvalue. Conclude that X is also an eigenvector of B.



I could show BX is zero or is an eigenvector of A with the same eigenvalue, but i don't know how to Conclude that X is also an eigenvector of B. Does anyone know how to do it? Thanks!
 
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Why don't we ever get neat questions like that?

I have an idea how to tackle this, but I can't help you at this moment.
 
why you cannot help me?
JasonRox said:
Why don't we ever get neat questions like that?
I have an idea how to tackle this, but I can't help you at this moment.
 
But that was what JerryKelly had already shown...
 
matt grime said:
The answer follows from all the definitions given in one line:

If BX=0 we're done, if not to show BX is an eigenvalue of A we consider ABX and use the information in the question.

Yes, that part he said he could do. The remaining problem is to show that X is in fact an eigenvector of B.

You haven't used the fact that A has n distince eigenvalues. If that is true then there exist a basis for the vector space consisting of eigenvectors of A.
 
Muzza said:
But that was what JerryKelly had already shown...
But it also proves the rest of the question (admittedly it is a trivial observation since any question that is doable is doable because of the information in the question, but here it is a case of follow your nose). We have proved B preserves (generalized) eigenspaces (of A) which are all 1-d according to the information in the question, thus answering the last part.
 
Since matt grime is about to burst trying to give clues without giving the whole thing, I'm going to give up and spell it out in "donkey steps".

Given A and B are n by n matrices with AB= BA.
1. If x is an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue [itex]\lambda[/itex] then Bx is also also an eigenvector of A with eigenvalue [itex]\lambda[/itex].
(A(Bx))= (AB)x= (BA)x= B(Ax)= B([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)= [itex]\lambda[/itex](Bx))

2. If lambda is an eigenvalue of A then the set of all vectors x such that Ax= [itex]\lambda[/itex]x forms a subspace (often called the "eigenspace" of [itex]\lambda[/itex]). Further the eigenspaces of two distinct eigenvalues have only 0 in common.

3. Since A is an n by n matrix it is on an n dimensional vector space.

4. Since A has n distinct eigenvalues, each eigenspace has dimension 1.

5. If two vectors are in the same one-dimensional subspace then one is a multiple of the other.

6. Since x and Bx are in the same one-dimensional eigenspace, Bx is a multiple of x.
 
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Thanks for help,HallsofIvy! It made perfert sence! for the first step, it is so similar what i was doing. I was doing ABx=BAx=B[itex]\lambda[/itex]x=[itex]\lambda[/itex]Bx.
since A(Bx)=[itex]\lambda[/itex](Bx)
Bx=0 or Bx is eigenvector.
 
your way is seeing better than my way. Thanks,agian! It is very helpful.