Div, Curl and all that jazz: Proving identities

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Homework Statement


Prove:

[tex]\int\left(\nabla \times \vec{F}\right)\cdot d\vec{V} = \oint \left(\vec{\hat{n}} \times \vec{F} \right) dS[/tex]

Homework Equations


In the previous part of the question, we proved that:

[tex]\nabla \cdot \left( \vec{F} \times \vec{d} \right) = \vec{d} \cdot \nabla \times \vec {F}[/tex]
(where d is a constant vector)
And also, it looks like we'll need to use the Divergence theorem.


The Attempt at a Solution



OK, so, here I go!

[tex]\int\left(\nabla \times \vec{F} \right)\cdot \vec{\hat{n}}dV \\<br /> <br /> = \int \nabla \cdot \left( \vec{F} \times \vec{\hat{n}} \right) dV[/tex]

By the relation above proved from the previous part of the question. Next, I used the divergence theorem:

[tex] <br /> \int \nabla \cdot \left( \vec{F} \times \vec{\hat{n}} \right) dV = \oint \left( \vec{F} \times \vec{\hat{n}} \right) \cdot d\vec{S}[/tex]

My question is...Is [tex]\oint \left( \vec{F} \times \vec{\hat{n}} \right) \cdot d\vec{S} = \oint \left(\vec{\hat{n}} \times \vec{F} \right) \cdot d \vec{S}[/tex]?

My initial thought is that it isn't, as the cross product isn't commutative. If that is thecase, where else have I gone wrong?

Cheers!
 
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Erm, I'm don't know what an the orientation of a surface is, but I've had an idea.

I know that:

[tex]\vec{F} \times \vec{\hat{n}} = -\vec{\hat{n}} \times \vec{F}[/tex]

and that:

[tex]\int_{a}^{b} f(x)dx = - \int_{b}^{a} f(x)dx[/tex]

But, since it's a closed integral, I guess if we reverse the 'order' of integration, it doesn't matter if we do: the start and end points are the same...and the minuses cancel. Seems a bit of mathematical trickery to me, though. :frown: