eljose
- 484
- 0
more than a proper topic this is a question...my question is if all the divergences that appear in QFT are due to integrals in the form:
\int_{0}^{\infty}dkk^{m}
with m=-1 (logarithmic),0,1,2,3,4,5,...
if not i think that for any other divergences you could express them as:
\int_{0}^{\infty}dkF(k)= \sum_{r=0}^{\infty}a(r)\int_{0}^{\infty}dkk^{r}
r=0,1,2,3,4,5,... and a(r) the coefficients of the series expansion for the function F(k) of course K here is the "momentum" modulus p=\hbar{k}
\int_{0}^{\infty}dkk^{m}
with m=-1 (logarithmic),0,1,2,3,4,5,...
if not i think that for any other divergences you could express them as:
\int_{0}^{\infty}dkF(k)= \sum_{r=0}^{\infty}a(r)\int_{0}^{\infty}dkk^{r}
r=0,1,2,3,4,5,... and a(r) the coefficients of the series expansion for the function F(k) of course K here is the "momentum" modulus p=\hbar{k}