Graduate Do Time-ordering and Time Integrals commute? Peskin(4.22)(4.31)(4.44)

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the relationship between time-ordering and time integrals in quantum mechanics, specifically regarding the time-ordered exponential notation in Peskin's work. It is clarified that time-ordering acts like a sorting algorithm, allowing for the rearrangement of operators before applying it, which leads to the conclusion that time-ordering can indeed be moved inside integrals. This is supported by examples demonstrating that the time-ordered integral is defined to equal the integral of the time-ordered product of operators. The participants agree that this definition is essential for compact notation in the Dyson series of time-dependent perturbation theory. Ultimately, it is established that time-ordering and time integrals commute.
George Wu
Messages
6
Reaction score
3
TL;DR
In Peskin's QFT textbook, according to the explanation below(4.22), the Time-ordered exponential is just a notation, however in the derivation of (4.31),the Time-ordered exponential seems more than just a notation.
In Peskin P85:
1683566820582.png

It says the Time-ordered exponential is just a notation,in my understanding, it means
$$\begin{aligned}
&T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{t_0}^t{d}t^{\prime}H_I\left( t^{\prime} \right) \right] \right\}\\
&\ne T\left\{ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
However in the derivation of (4.31):
1683567804588.png

A way to derivate this is: Jens Wagemaker (https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/103623/jens-wagemaker), Why can the time-ordered exponentials be brought to the right?, URL (version: 2023-05-06): https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/762829
Here is his way of derivation:
Note that the time ordering operator is like a sorting algorithm, hence it doesn't matter if we permute something before applying the time ordering operator. In particular we can perform some additional time-ordering by inserting an additional time-ordering operator:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U(T,-T) \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
We show the case ##x_0>y_0##. By 4.26 we get
$$U(T,-T)=U\left(T, x_0\right) U\left(x_0, y_0\right) U\left(y_0,-T\right)$$
which we substitute.
$$A=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U\left( T,x_0 \right) U\left( x_0,y_0 \right) U\left( y_0,-T \right) \right\} $$
Now we want to apply the time ordering. For this we note that the ##U\left(T, x_0\right)## contains only operators with the with in the interval ##\left[T, x_0\right]##, and similar for the terms ##U\left(x_0, y_0\right)## and##U\left(y_0,-T\right)##. Hence, if we apply the time ordering we get.
##A=U\left(T, x_0\right) \phi_I(x) U\left(x_0, y_0\right) \phi_I(y) U\left(y_0,-T\right)##, which occurs in the numerator of your second expression.
This step seems straightforward:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
However this means:
$$\begin{aligned}
A&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)\left[ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2T\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) \right\} +\cdots \right] \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)T\left\{ \exp \left[ -i\int_{-T}^T{d}tH_I(t) \right] \right\} \right\}\\
&=T\left\{ \phi _I(x)\phi _I(y)U(T,-T) \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
In this process we use:
$$\begin{aligned}
&T\left\{ 1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) +\cdots \right\}\\
&=1+(-i)\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1H_I\left( t_1 \right) +\frac{(-i)^2}{2!}\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1dt_2T\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) H_I\left( t_2 \right) \right\} +\cdots\\
\end{aligned}$$
which means :
$$
T\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nH_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right) =\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nT\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right) \right\} $$
What's more, in the derivation of (4.44):
1683568909241.png

In order to apply wick's theorm, Time-ordering must go inside the integral.
So my question is:
Does Time-ordering and Time Integral commute?
Or in another word:
Can Time-ordering can go inside the integral?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I have found a great answer:
Prahar (https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/8821/prahar), Time ordering of integral, URL (version: 2022-12-17): https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/741494
$$T\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nH_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right)$$
is defined to equal to
$$\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nT\left\{ H_I\left( t_1 \right) \cdots H_I\left( t_n \right) \right\}$$
Otherwise the left side does mean anything.
This definition can be extended to cases like##T\left\{ \phi \left( t\prime_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t\prime_m \right) \int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_n\phi \left( t_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t_n \right) \right\} ##
$$\begin{aligned}
T\left\{ \phi \left( t\prime_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t\prime_m \right) \int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_n\phi \left( t_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t_n \right) \right\} :&=T\left\{ \phi \left( t\prime_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t\prime_m \right) \int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nT\left\{ \phi \left( t_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t_n \right) \right\} \right\}\\
&=\int_{t_0}^t{d}t_1\cdots dt_nT\left\{ \phi \left( t\prime_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t\prime_m \right) \phi \left( t_1 \right) \cdots \phi \left( t_n \right) \right\}\\
\end{aligned}$$
 
Yes, they commute and it can go inside the integral. Your first inequality should be the equality.
 
I think it's a definition of the time-ordering symbol to apply it to the integrand, i.e., to commute it with the integral. It's defined to get a compact notation of the Dyson series of time-dependent perturbation theory in terms of a "time-ordered exponential". If you look at the derivation of this formula, that'll become clear. See, e.g., Sect. 1.9, where it's derived for potential scattering in non-relativistic QM:

https://itp.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/publ/lect.pdf
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 41 ·
2
Replies
41
Views
6K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K