Does bounded derivative always imply uniform continuity?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in real analysis concerning the relationship between bounded derivatives and uniform continuity. The original poster presents a scenario where a function is differentiable on an open subset of the real numbers with a bounded derivative, questioning whether this implies uniform continuity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to provide a counterexample to the claim by defining a piecewise function on an open set that is not uniformly continuous despite having a bounded derivative. Other participants engage by validating the counterexample and discussing the implications of the function being defined on an open interval versus a more general open set.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the validity of the original poster's reasoning and the implications of the counterexample. Some participants suggest that the nature of the set being an interval is crucial to the continuity properties being discussed.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted distinction between open subsets that are intervals and those that are unions of disjoint intervals, which may affect the continuity of functions defined on them. The original poster's example raises questions about the assumptions underlying the problem statement.

lonewolf5999
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I'm working on a problem for my analysis class. Here it is:

Let f be differentiable on an open subset S of R. Suppose there exists M > 0 such that for all x in S, |f'(x)| ≤ M, i.e. the derivative is bounded. Show that f is uniformly continuous on S.

I'm not too sure that this question is correct though, as I think I have a counterexample. Let S be the union of (-1,0) and (0, 1), then clearly S is open. Define f(x) = |x| / x for x in S.
Then if x < 0, f(x) = -1, and if x > 0, f(x) = 1.
f'(x) = 0 at every x in S, since 0 is not in S, so f is differentiable on S and the derivative is bounded.

And now f is not uniformly continuous on S, since if we set ε= 1, let δ be arbitrary, and pick x,y close to 0 such that x<0, y>0, and |x - y| < δ, it does not follow that |f(x) - f(y)| < ε. So no δ will work for this ε.

I'd really appreciate any feedback on my reasoning. Thanks for your time!
 
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This indeed looks like a valid counterexample!
 
indeed, the problem should read:

Let f be differentiable on an open interval S of R. Suppose there exists M > 0 such that for all x in S, |f'(x)| ≤ M, i.e. the derivative is bounded. Show that f is uniformly continuous on S.

so there's something special about intervals and continuity. intervals are connected.
 
Thanks for the replies!
 

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