Does derivative have to be piecewise continous

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I know the derivative does not have to be continous, due to couter-example $f(x)=x^2 \sin (1/x)$. But does derivative still have to be PIECEWISE continuous? If not, is there some weaker statement that is still true?
 
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the derivative has the Darboux property... http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/DarbouxsTheorem.html"
 
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g_edgar said:
the derivative has the Darboux property... http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/DarbouxsTheorem.html"

Are you saying that derivative does NOT have to be piecewise continuous, or are you saying you simply don't know one way or the other?
 
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