Does -ln(-∞) Equal ln(∞) in Complex Analysis?

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DrCrowbar
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For instance, say I have

-ln(-∞)​

Does the negative sign on the natural log cancel with the negative sign on the infinity?

Is this true?
-ln(-∞) = ln(∞)​

Thank you

-Drc
 
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Hi Tim!

Ah... clumsy me. I knew that. I really did. Well, used to... :wink:

So if you have ln(-∞), is that essentially ∞ or -∞?

I'm finding the solution for a calculus III improper integrals question. I guess it doesn't matter, though, because either way it diverges (a possible solution).

Thanks again

-Drc
 
DrCrowbar said:
Hi Tim!

Ah... clumsy me. I knew that. I really did. Well, used to... :wink:

So if you have ln(-∞), is that essentially ∞ or -∞?
No, it's simply not defined, as tiny-tim said. I'm assuming you're working with real numbers.
tiny-tim said:
Hi DrCrowbar! :smile:

There is no such thing as the ln of a negative number. :wink:

(unless we're allowed complex numbers, in which case eg ln(-1) = πi)
 
Ah, ok.

So ln(-#) is the same as -ln(#)... That makes sense, actually. I had forgotten what the graph of the natural log function looks like.

Thanks guys. It's the first time I've asked a math question online and actually received a correct answer!

-Drc
 
Oh, ok.

So you can have a negative natural log function (-ln|cscx+cotx| for instance) but you cannot have the natural log of a negative number unless you involve imaginary numbers.

I haven't really seen much of imaginary numbers, but I hear they're used a bit in D.E.
 
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