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Suppose you have a tube of moving water where bernoulli´s equation can be apllied and the water is at the same elevation all over the tube. Consider two points, 1 and 2. We have :
p_1 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_1)^2=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2
On different inertial referentials the velocities would be different, therefore, the pressures would also be different, which is absurd. For example, if on referential S, v_1=0,
p_1=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2
p_1\succ p_2
But on referential R in which v_2=0
p_2\succ p_1
by the same reasoning.
Can anybody explain the paradox? Doesn´t this collide with the relativity principle which states that the laws of physics must be equal to inertial obervers?
p_1 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_1)^2=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2
On different inertial referentials the velocities would be different, therefore, the pressures would also be different, which is absurd. For example, if on referential S, v_1=0,
p_1=p_2 + \frac{1}{2}\rho (v_2)^2
p_1\succ p_2
But on referential R in which v_2=0
p_2\succ p_1
by the same reasoning.
Can anybody explain the paradox? Doesn´t this collide with the relativity principle which states that the laws of physics must be equal to inertial obervers?