Does the Integral from 8 to 666 of 1/((x^(1/3))-2) Converge or Diverge?

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The integral from 8 to 666 of 1/((x^(1/3))-2) is being analyzed for convergence or divergence. The integrand is not continuous over the interval, specifically at x=8, which complicates the application of the fundamental theorem of calculus. Substitution methods are suggested to simplify the integrand and facilitate evaluation, including using u = x^(1/3) and v = u - 2. The discussion highlights the importance of comparison tests for determining convergence, particularly by relating the integral to known functions. Ultimately, the focus remains on proving the convergence or divergence of the integral over the specified limits.
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Homework Statement


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∫1/((x^1/3)-2)dx between b=666 and a=8

Aim is to prove divergence or convergence

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



Okay so I know I can prove for 4x1/3 < x when 8 < x but I don't know where to go from here. There is obviously very large terminal values, and i know you could say evalute each terminal values using fundamental theorem of calculus..

Any easier way to do it?
 
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The integrand is not continuous over [a, b], so you can't use the fundamental theorem of calculus (directly).

Try the substitution u^3 = x and write the integrand in terms of u. Make sure you change the limits of integration, too. Then try v = u - 2. Then things will look a little more obvious.
 
The original problem appears to be to integrate from 2 to 666. There is, of course, a problem at x= 2 but since the problem does NOT require integration to infinity, I do not understand Ray Vickson's "(ii) whether the function grows small quickly enough to yield a finite integration as the upper limit goes to infinity."
 
HallsofIvy said:
The original problem appears to be to integrate from 2 to 666. There is, of course, a problem at x= 2 but since the problem does NOT require integration to infinity, I do not understand Ray Vickson's "(ii) whether the function grows small quickly enough to yield a finite integration as the upper limit goes to infinity."

I had mid-read the original problem; there is no issue at the lower end ##x = 2##. And, somehow, I thought that the OP was trying to figure out whether the integral ##\int_ a^{\infty} f(x) \, dx## exists, by looking at ##\int_a^b f(x) \, dx## for some large, finite ##b = 666## and trying to get a conclusion or insight from that. However, when I go back and re-read the original, I see that no such statement seems to have been made, so the question is actually a more-or-less pointless exercise except, of course, for actually doing the integral, which is elementary, but tedious. Anyway, I deleted my previous post.
 
But there is an issue at x= 2 where the integrand is not defined.
 
Ray Vickson said:
I had mid-read the original problem; there is no issue at the lower end ##x = 2##.
I agree that there is no problem at x = 2, but the original integral is over the interval [8, 666], and there is a problem at x = 8.
Ray Vickson said:
And, somehow, I thought that the OP was trying to figure out whether the integral ##\int_ a^{\infty} f(x) \, dx## exists, by looking at ##\int_a^b f(x) \, dx## for some large, finite ##b = 666## and trying to get a conclusion or insight from that. However, when I go back and re-read the original, I see that no such statement seems to have been made, so the question is actually a more-or-less pointless exercise except, of course, for actually doing the integral, which is elementary, but tedious. Anyway, I deleted my previous post.
HallsofIvy said:
The original problem appears to be to integrate from 2 to 666.
No, the original integral is ##\int_8^{666}\frac {dx}{\sqrt[3]{x} - 2}##
HallsofIvy said:
There is, of course, a problem at x= 2 but since the problem does NOT require integration to infinity, I do not understand Ray Vickson's "(ii) whether the function grows small quickly enough to yield a finite integration as the upper limit goes to infinity."
 
Okay essentially all I want to prove is convergence or divergence of the integral over the [8,666]. I know no problem exists for x=2 but rather the problem exists at x=8

Using substitution as u= x1/3 and x= x3 i get ∫3*u2/(u-2)

I than reapply v = u-2 and and therefore u = v + 2 and integrate respectively. But my challenge is, think it is asking you to use some sort of comparison rather than evaluating the integral to calculate the convergence/divergence? Would the comparison test work?
 
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Once you have the integral 3\int \frac{u^2}{u- 2} du do the division to get 3\int (v+ 2+ \frac{4}{v-2})dx. The first two terms are easily integrable and you can "compare" the last to integrating \frac{1}{x} in the vicinity of x= 0.