While reading Laplace transform in my book, I came across a problem. where it evaluates the laplace transform of f(t)=1/√t => √(π/s) . But is the laplace transform of f(t) really exists? because I thought the function f(t) is not defined at t=0 and it tends to infinite. So How is it possible that the definite intgeration over [0,∞] can be evaluated for such function?