Double Integral of function in region bounded by two circles

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on evaluating the double integral of a function over a region bounded by two circles defined by the equations \(x^2 + y^2 = 100\) and \(x^2 - 10x + y^2 = 0\). The polar forms of these equations are \(r = 10\) and \(r = 10 \cos \theta\), respectively. Participants propose a strategy to compute the integral by dividing the region into quadrants and using polar coordinates. Key issues include the correct limits of integration and the necessity of multiplying certain integrals by 2 to account for symmetry.

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songoku
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Homework Statement
Let R be the region which lies inside the circle ##x^2+y^2=100## and outside the circle ##x^2-10x+y^2=0##
a) Sketch the two circles and shade the region R in your diagram
b) Evaluate the integral ##\iint_R \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}~dA##
Relevant Equations
##\iint_R f(x,y)~dA=\int_{\alpha}^{\beta} \int^{b}_{a} f(r,\theta) r~dr~d\theta##

##r=2a \cos\theta+2b\sin\theta##
The polar form of ##x^2+y^2=100## is ##r=10## and polar form of ##x^2-10x+y^2=0## is ##r=10 \cos\theta##

1732704918952.png


My idea is to divide the working into two parts:
1) find the integral in 1st quadrant and multiply by 2 to include the region in 4th quadrant
2) find the integral in 2nd quadrant and multiply by 2 to include the region in 3rd quadrant

Integral in 1st quadrant:
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \int^{10}_{10\cos\theta} \frac{1}{r}r~dr~d\theta$$
$$=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \int^{10}_{10\cos\theta} dr~d\theta$$

Integral in 2nd quadrant:
$$\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\pi} \int^{10}_{0} dr~d\theta$$

Am I correct? Thanks
 
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My strategy is integral in red - integral in blue.
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
My strategy is integral in red - integral in blue.
1) When doing integral ##\int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{10\cos\theta} dr~d\theta## for blue part, I got zero. What is my mistake?

2) Why can't I use ##r=2a\cos\theta +2b\sin\theta## to get polar form of ##x^2+y^2=100##? The center is (0, 0) so ##a## and ##b## are both zero and when I plug it in I get ##r=0##

Thanks
 
The blue part seems to be
\int_0^{2\pi} d\theta \int_0^a dr \frac{r}{\sqrt{a^2+r^2+2ar\cos\theta}}
where r and ##\theta## are from center of blue circle whose radius is a.
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
For blue I got
2\int_0^\pi \frac{1}{2r\cos \frac{\theta}{2}}\frac{1}{2}r^2 d\theta
where r is radius of blue circle, ##\theta## is radius angle measured at its center.
My attempt for blue circle:
$$\iint_R \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}} dA$$
$$=\int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{10\cos\theta} \frac{1}{\sqrt{(5+5\cos\theta)^2 + (5\sin\theta)^2}}r~dr~d\theta$$
$$=\int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{10\cos\theta} \frac{1}{\sqrt{50+50\cos\theta}}r~dr~d\theta$$
$$=\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{1}{\sqrt{50}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+\cos\theta}} \left.\frac{1}{2}r^2 \right|_{0}^{10\cos\theta}d~\theta$$
$$=\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{5\cos^2 \theta}{\cos \frac{\theta}{2}}d~\theta$$

Where is mistake in my working?

I also don't understand why you multiply by 2. Is integral from 0 to ##\pi## already represents the whole circle?

Thanks
 
My bad. I had reposted #4.

In your approach denominator in the integrand be
\sqrt{(a+r cos \theta)^2+(r sin \theta)^2}
Which is same with mine.
\int_0^a dr
 
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songoku said:
1) When doing integral ##\int_{0}^{\pi} \int_{0}^{10\cos\theta} dr~d\theta## for blue part, I got zero. What is my mistake?

r must be positive. \cos \theta is negative for \frac\pi2 < \theta \leq \pi.

The parametrization of x^2 - 10xy + y^2 = 0 is therefore r = R(\theta) = \begin{cases} <br /> 0 &amp; -\pi \leq \theta &lt; -\tfrac12 \pi \\<br /> 10\cos \theta &amp; -\tfrac12 \pi \leq \theta \leq \tfrac 12 \pi \\ <br /> 0 &amp; \tfrac12 \pi &lt; \theta \leq \pi \end{cases}

2) Why can't I use ##r=2a\cos\theta +2b\sin\theta## to get polar form of ##x^2+y^2=100##? The center is (0, 0) so ##a## and ##b## are both zero and when I plug it in I get ##r=0##

Thanks
The general equation for a conic section of eccentricity e and semi-latus rectum \ell with a focus at the orign is not r(\theta) = a\cos \theta + b \sin \theta + c but <br /> r(\theta) = \frac{\ell}{1 + e\cos(\theta - \theta_0)}. If you expand the denominator in binomial series for e &lt; 1 you will see that for e &gt; 0 it has far more terms in its fourier series than just the first three given above. For e = 0 it is constant, as one would expect.
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
The blue part seems to be
\int_0^{2\pi} d\theta \int_0^a dr \frac{r}{\sqrt{a^2+r^2+2ar\cos\theta}}
where r and ##\theta## are from center of blue circle whose radius is a.
1) Why do we need to integrate it from o to ##2\pi##? From ##r=10\cos\theta##, shouldn't we integrate from 0 to ##\frac{\pi}{2}## and multiply by 2?

2) Is it possible to integrate the expression I got in the last line of post #5?

3) Why is my method in OP not working?

Thanks
 
songoku said:
1) Why do we need to integrate it from o to 2π? From r=10cos⁡θ, shouldn't we integrate from 0 to π2 and multiply by 2?

2) Is it possible to integrate the expression I got in the last line of post #5?

3) Why is my method in OP not working?
1) Please find attached the figure to show the integration
1732858015038.png

2) Sure, but it is not a solution to the problem.
3) Let us check your method and mine. What is the result value ?
 
Last edited:
  • #10
anuttarasammyak said:
1) Please find attached the figure to show the integration
View attachment 353962
The ##\theta## is not between ##r## and horizontal?

1732872120929.png
 
  • #11
songoku said:
The θ is not between r and horizontal?
The angle in my integral is as figured whatever name it could have.
 
  • #12
anuttarasammyak said:
The angle in my integral is as figured whatever name it could have.
If I use ##x=a+r\cos\theta##, the angle is always measured from the center of circle?
 
  • #13
Yes, that seems to be same as my figure.
 
  • #14
If you do parametrize the blue circle as \{(5 + r\cos \theta, r \sin \theta) : r \in [0,5]. \theta \in [0, 2\pi)\} then you end up with \iint_{\mbox{blue circle}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2 + y^2}}\,dx\,dy = <br /> \int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^5 \frac{r}{\sqrt{(r + 5 \cos \theta)^2 + 25\sin^2 \theta}}\,dr\,d\theta which is a much less tractable integral than \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \int_0^{10 \cos \theta}\,dr\,d\theta using the parametrization \{ (r \cos \theta, r \sin \theta) : 0 \leq r \leq 10 \cos \theta, -\frac \pi 2 \leq \theta \leq \frac \pi 2 \}.
 
  • #15
songoku said:
Homework Statement: Let R be the region which lies inside the circle ##x^2+y^2=100## and outside the circle ##x^2-10x+y^2=0##
a) Sketch the two circles and shade the region R in your diagram
b) Evaluate the integral ##\iint_R \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}~dA##
Relevant Equations: ##\iint_R f(x,y)~dA=\int_{\alpha}^{\beta} \int^{b}_{a} f(r,\theta) r~dr~d\theta##

##r=2a \cos\theta+2b\sin\theta##

The polar form of ##x^2+y^2=100## is ##r=10## and polar form of ##x^2-10x+y^2=0## is ##r=10 \cos\theta##

View attachment 353914

My idea is to divide the working into two parts:
1) find the integral in 1st quadrant and multiply by 2 to include the region in 4th quadrant
2) find the integral in 2nd quadrant and multiply by 2 to include the region in 3rd quadrant

Integral in 1st quadrant:
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \int^{10}_{10\cos\theta} \frac{1}{r}r~dr~d\theta$$
$$=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \int^{10}_{10\cos\theta} dr~d\theta$$

Integral in 2nd quadrant:
$$\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\pi} \int^{10}_{0} dr~d\theta$$

Am I correct? Thanks
What you have in the OP should work just fine.

Was there some problem with this?
 
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  • #16
SammyS said:
What you have in the OP should work just fine.

Was there some problem with this?
I am just not sure whether my working is correct.

Thank you for all the help and explanation anuttarasammyak, pasmith, SammyS
 
  • #17
@songoku your way works. What value have you got ? I would like to comapre your way and mine to get some good insights.
 
  • #18
anuttarasammyak said:
@songoku your way works. What value have you got ? I would like to comapre your way and mine to get some good insights.
I got ##20\pi-20##
 
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  • #19
@songoku Thanks.
20\pi-20=4a\pi-4a where a=5. Contribution of the blue part is 4a. That should be equal to my integral so
a \int_0^{2\pi} d\theta \int_0^1 dx \frac{x}{(1+x^2-2x \cos\theta)^{\frac{1}{2}}}=4a
\int_0^{2\pi} d\theta \int_0^1 dx \frac{x}{(1+x^2-2x \cos\theta)^{\frac{1}{2}}}=4
We get troublesome definite integral value by your smart way.
 
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  • #20
anuttarasammyak said:
@songoku Thanks.
20\pi-20=4a\pi-4a where a=5. Contribution of the blue part is 4a. That should be equal to my integral so
a \int_0^{2\pi} d\theta \int_0^1 dx \frac{x}{(1+x^2-2x \cos\theta)^{\frac{1}{2}}}=4a
\int_0^{2\pi} d\theta \int_0^1 dx \frac{x}{(1+x^2-2x \cos\theta)^{\frac{1}{2}}}=4
We get troublesome definite integral value by your smart way.
In the same manner we may easily expand it to
\int_0^{2\pi} d\theta \int_0^1 dx \frac{x}{(1+x^2-2x \cos\theta)^{\frac{1-p}{2}}}=\frac{2^{2+p}}{1+p}\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\cos^{1+p}\theta \ d\ \theta
for p>0
 
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