Represent a 3d region and compute this triple integral

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around representing a specific three-dimensional region defined by inequalities involving spherical coordinates and computing a triple integral over that region. The region is described as a spherical shell with an inner hole intersecting a cone.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to define the region E using inequalities and spherical coordinates, and to set up the corresponding triple integral. Some participants confirm the setup and discuss the order of integration.

Discussion Status

Participants are engaged in verifying the correctness of the integral setup and the representation of the region. There is a general agreement on the approach taken, though some details regarding notation and integration order are being clarified.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the implications of the notation used in the integral and its readability, as well as confirming the correctness of the defined region and the integral limits.

DottZakapa
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Homework Statement
Let ## E=\left\{ (x,y,z) \in R^3 : 1 \leq x^2+y^2+z^2 \leq 4, 3x^2+3y^2-z^2\leq 0, z\geq0 \right\} ##
- Represent the region E in 3-dimensions
-represent the section of e in (x,z) plane
-compute ## \int \frac {y^2} {x^2+y^2} \,dx \,dy \,dz##
Relevant Equations
integrals
Let ## E=\left\{ (x,y,z) \in R^3 : 1 \leq x^2+y^2+z^2 \leq 4, 3x^2+3y^2-z^2\leq 0, z\geq0 \right\} ##
- Represent the region E in 3-dimensions
-represent the section of e in (x,z) plane
-compute ## \int \frac {y^2} {x^2+y^2} \,dx \,dy \,dz##

the domain is a sphere of radius 2 with an inner spherical hole of radius 1 which intersects a cone on the positive z-axis.

using spherical coordinates

##\begin{cases}
x=r cos\theta sin \phi\\
y=rsin\theta sin\phi\\
z=rcos\phi\\
\end{cases}##

##\begin{cases}
1\leq r\leq 2\\
0 \leq \theta \leq 2\pi\\
0 \leq \phi \leq \frac {\pi} 6\\
\end{cases}##

the integral becomes

## \int_{1}^2 \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\frac \pi 6} \frac {(rsin\theta sin\phi)^2} {(r cos\theta sin \phi)^2+(rsin\theta sin\phi)^2} r^2 \sin \phi \,d\phi \, d\theta \,dr ##=

= ## \int_{1}^2 \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\frac \pi 6} r^2 sin\phi sin\theta^2 ,d\phi \, d\theta \,dr##
up to here is correct?
 
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Looks good to me, assuming concerning the integration order of the final integral you mean
$$\int_1^2 \mathrm{d} r \int_0^{2 \pi} \mathrm{d} \theta \int_0^{\pi/6} \mathrm{d} \phi \; r^2 \sin \phi \sin^2 \theta.$$
I'm aware that many textbooks have the confusing notation with the "differentials" in the integrals at the end, but then you have a hard time to read which integral sign belongs to which of the integration variables.
 
vanhees71 said:
Looks good to me, assuming concerning the integration order of the final integral you mean
$$\int_1^2 \mathrm{d} r \int_0^{2 \pi} \mathrm{d} \theta \int_0^{\pi/6} \mathrm{d} \phi \; r^2 \sin \phi \sin^2 \theta.$$
I'm aware that many textbooks have the confusing notation with the "differentials" in the integrals at the end, but then you have a hard time to read which integral sign belongs to which of the integration variables.
yes it is like that, concerning the domain is all correct?
 
I think so.
 
vanhees71 said:
I think so.
:muscle: thanks
 

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