Efficiently Solve Tricky Integral: cos(x)/(1+e^x) with Odd Function Property

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the integral of the function \(\int\frac{\cos(x)}{1+e^{x}}\,dx\). Participants explore the properties of the integrand, particularly focusing on the odd function characteristic of \(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}} - \frac{1}{2}\) and its implications for definite integrals over symmetric intervals.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss integration by parts and the representation of \(\cos(x)\) in terms of exponential functions. There are questions about the relevance of the odd function property and the implications for definite integrals over the interval \([- \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}]\).

Discussion Status

Some participants have noted the lack of an elementary antiderivative and are considering the implications of the odd function property on the integral. There is an ongoing exploration of how to approach the integral given the established properties of the functions involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants have clarified the interval of integration as \([- \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}]\) and are discussing the significance of this in relation to the properties of odd functions.

Elysian
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Homework Statement


Find the integral of

\int\frac{cos(x)}{1+e^{x}}

Homework Equations



Given that

\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2} is an odd function

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried integration by parts, with both u = cos(x) and u = 1+e^x, and both only complicated it even more. I've not learned infinite series and sequences so I'm not sure that's the way.

I did try writing cos(x) as \frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}, but I'm not sure what to do after that. I can see that there'd be some hyperbolic stuff in here but again, I'm not sure where exactly to start.
 
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Elysian said:

Homework Statement


Find the integral of

\int\frac{cos(x)}{1+e^{x}}

Homework Equations



Given that

\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2} is an odd function
I don't see how that is relevant unless you are doing a definite integral on an interval like [-a,a].

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried integration by parts, with both u = cos(x) and u = 1+e^x, and both only complicated it even more. I've not learned infinite series and sequences so I'm not sure that's the way.

I did try writing cos(x) as \frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}, but I'm not sure what to do after that. I can see that there'd be some hyperbolic stuff in here but again, I'm not sure where exactly to start.

I don't think there is an elementary antiderivative.
 
LCKurtz said:
I don't see how that is relevant unless you are doing a definite integral on an interval like [-a,a].


I don't think there is an elementary antiderivative.

Oh jeez I forgot to put the interval. its from -pi/2 to pi/2. I'm really sorry about that
 
Elysian said:
Oh jeez I forgot to put the interval. its from -pi/2 to pi/2. I'm really sorry about that

If ##f(x)## is odd what do you know about ##\int_{-a}^a f(x)\, dx##?
 
So, what is \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?
 
LCKurtz said:
If ##f(x)## is odd what do you know about ##\int_{-a}^a f(x)\, dx##?

It would equal 0. So as SammyS put it, it would be \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?, where the first term would go to zero and then I'm left to evaluate the last bit which would be -\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\frac{cos(x)}{2}?

SammyS said:
So, what is \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx

Is this just the integral of the right side then? So it's just -1?
 
Elysian said:
It would equal 0. So as SammyS put it, it would be \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?, where the first term would go to zero and then I'm left to evaluate the last bit which would be -\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\frac{cos(x)}{2}?

No. You don't evaluate an integral in pieces like that. You have ##\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}## multiplied by ##\cos x##. Is ##\cos x ## even, odd, or neither? What about its product with ##\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}##?
 
Elysian said:
It would equal 0. So as SammyS put it, it would be \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?, where the first term would go to zero and then I'm left to evaluate the last bit which would be -\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\frac{cos(x)}{2}?
Remember, the hint says that \displaystyle \frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\ is odd (that entire expression).

How do you get \displaystyle \frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\ from \displaystyle \frac{1}{1+e^{x}}\ ?
 

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