Eigenvector Question: Is v=(2,1) the same as v=(4,2)?

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The discussion confirms that eigenvectors v=(2,1) and v=(4,2) are equivalent as they span the same eigenspace defined by a specific eigenvalue. This equivalence arises from the property that any scalar multiple of an eigenvector is also an eigenvector corresponding to the same eigenvalue. Therefore, both vectors represent the same direction in the vector space.

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barksdalemc
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If I find a given eigenvector , that vector spans the entire eigenspace defined by that eigenvalue correct? Let's say I get v=(2,1) as an eigenvector. That is the same as saying v=(4,2) right? since they are spanning the same space?
 
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yes that is correct
 
thanks a lot
 

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