Electric Potential Normalization

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The discussion revolves around the normalization of electric potential in an infinite parallelpipid, focusing on the potential function derived from boundary conditions. The derived potential includes normalization constants, which were initially set to match quantum mechanics conventions. A discrepancy arises when comparing the normalization constant derived with and without the eta terms, leading to different results. The user questions whether the professor's assertion that the constants should yield the same result is correct, suggesting a potential oversight in the professor's calculations. Ultimately, the user believes they have identified an error in the professor's integration process that affects the normalization constant.
makhoma
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I was in my Electrodynamics lecture last week, still working the Laplacian and Poisson equations, when we discussed an infinite parallelpipid (infinite in the x direction, length a and b in the y and z direction respectively) with a potential of \Phi=\Phi_0 at x=0 plane and every other face having \Phi=0. Here he said that, due to boundary conditions we should expect the potential to have the form

<br /> \Phi(x,y,z)=\sum_{n_{y},n_{z}}A_{n_{y}n_{z}}\eta_{n_{y}}\sin\left[\frac{n_{y}\pi y}{a}\right]\eta_{n_{z}}\sin\left[\frac{n_{z}\pi z}{b}\right]\exp\left[-\pi\sqrt{\frac{n_{y}^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{n_{z}^{2}}{b^{2}}}x\right]<br />

where \eta and A are both normalization constants. I agree with this form (not sure about the normalization constants, but that's the question to come). We let the eta's equal \sqrt{2/a} and \sqrt{2/b} in order to coincide with QM. In looking at the case x=0, we find

<br /> \Phi_{0}=\sum_{n_{y}n_{z}}A_{n_{y}n_{z}}\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin\left[\frac{n_{y}\pi y}{a}\right]\sqrt{\frac{2}{b}}\sin\left[\frac{n_{z}\pi z}{b}\right]<br />

Then multiply both sides by

<br /> \sum_{n_{y}&#039;n_{z}&#039;}A_{n_{y}&#039;n_{z}&#039;}\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin\left[\frac{n_{y}&#039;\pi y}{a}\right]\sqrt{\frac{2}{b}}\sin\left[\frac{n_{z}^{&#039;}\pi z}{b}\right]<br />

Which after integrating over dy&#039; and dz&#039; from 0 to a and 0 to b, respectively, we find that n_y,n_z must be odd integers. So then the normalization constant is found to be

<br /> A_{n_{y}&#039;n_{z}&#039;}=\frac{8\Phi_{0}\sqrt{ab}}{n_{y}&#039;n_{z}&#039;\pi^{2}}<br />

All of this makes sense and does work out mathematically. The trouble I find is that my professor said we could do this without having the \eta terms in there, that A would absorb it and we should still come out with the same answer. But following the same math as above, and removing the \eta normalizations, I find the normalization constant to be

<br /> A_{n_{y}&#039;,n_{z}&#039;}=\frac{4\Phi_{0}ab}{n_{y}&#039;n_{z}&#039;\pi^{2}}<br />

My question is two-fold:
(1) Is my professor wrong and we should not expect the same normalization constant between the two (my answer is off by the factor 2/\sqrt{ab}?
(2) Is my professor right, and I screwed up somewhere?
 
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I think I found an error in what my professor did in class. We have a line that reads

<br /> \int_0^ady\int_0^bdz\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin\left[\frac{n_y&#039;\pi y}{a}\right]\sqrt{\frac{2}{b}}\sin\left[\frac{n_z&#039;\pi z}{b}\right]\Phi_0=A_{n_y&#039;n_z&#039;}<br />

And it should read

<br /> \int_0^ady\int_0^bdz\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin\left[\frac{n_y&#039;\pi y}{a}\right]\sqrt{\frac{2}{b}}\sin\left[\frac{n_z&#039;\pi z}{b}\right]\Phi_0=\frac{2}{\sqrt{ab}}A_{n_y&#039;n_z&#039;}<br />

This makes the normalization constant A_{n_y&#039;n_z&#039;} equal to what I get:

<br /> A_{n_y&#039;n_z&#039;}=\frac{4\Phi_0ab}{n_y&#039;n_z&#039;\pi^2}<br />

Guess the professor forgot to carry some factors from one line to the next. Thanks for your help anyway!
 
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