Electric sinusoidal field on a hydrogen atom - Quantum Mechanics

damarkk
Messages
11
Reaction score
2
Homework Statement
some doubts to clarify
Relevant Equations
Hamiltonian, spherical harmonic functions of hydrogen atom
Hello to everyone. I have some doubts about one problem of quantum mechanics.

Consider an hydrogen atom under the action of a electric field ##E(t)= E_0 sin(\omega t)## along ##z## axis. We can put ##\frac{|E_2-E_1|}{\hbar} = \omega_0##, where##E_1##, ##E_2## are respectively the ground state and first excited energy states.

If the system is in a ground state for ##t=0##, then using dependent time perturbation theory on the first order, find the state of a system at generic ##t>0##.
Consider only transition for n=1 to ##n=2## states.


My attempt.

I need to calculate the coefficient ##W_{ij}=<\psi_i | H' |\psi_j>## where ##H' = -eE(t)z## is a perturbation term in the hamiltonian and ##|\psi_i> = |\psi_{nlm}>##. We have four states and sixteen terms to calculate, respectively for the states ##\psi_{100}, \psi_{200}, \psi_{210}, \psi_{211}, \psi_{21-1}##.

After this work, because the dependance of time, I can assume that the coefficients of the linear combination of the states are functions of time and for compute these term ##c_ni = -\frac{i}{\hbar}\int W_{ij}exp(-i\omega_{ni}t)dt##.


Then, the state is ##|\psi>= c_{100}(t)exp(-iE_{100}t/\hbar)|\psi_{100}>+c_{200}(t)exp(-iE_{200}t/\hbar)|\psi_{200}>+c_{210}(t)exp(-iE_{210}t/\hbar)|\psi_{210}>+c_{211}(t)exp(-iE_{211}t/\hbar)|\psi_{211}>+c_{21-1}(t)exp(-iE_{21-1}t/\hbar)|\psi_{21-1}>##


Is this correct?
I'm sorry for my poor english.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Some suggestions? Is my attempt correct?
Thanks in advance.
 
Overall, I think you have the correct approach.

damarkk said:
I can assume that the coefficients of the linear combination of the states are functions of time and for compute these term ##c_ni = -\frac{i}{\hbar}\int W_{ij}exp(-i\omega_{ni}t)dt##.
On the left side, I think you meant to type ##c_{ni}## instead of ##c_ni##.

Am I right that the subscript ##i## refers to the initial state ##|\psi_{100}\rangle## and the subscript ##n## refers to one of the states ##|\psi_{100}\rangle, |\psi_{200}\rangle, |\psi_{211}\rangle, |\psi_{210}\rangle,|\psi_{21-1}\rangle##?

On the right side, you have ##W_{ij}##. Do you have the correct subscripts here?

Also, you didn't tell us what the notation ##\omega_{ni}## represents. Check the sign of the argument of the exponential function.

What are the upper and lower limits for the integral in the expression for ##c_{ni}## ?

Your formula for ##c_{ni}## appears to be the formula for obtaining the first-order contribution to the expansion coefficient. So, I would write the left side as ##c_{ni}^{(1)}##, where the superscript ##(1)## denotes the first-order contribution.

Up through first order, the expansion coefficients will be ##c_{ni} = c_{ni}^{(0)}+ c_{ni}^{(1)}##, where ##c_{ni}^{(0)}## is the the zeroth-order approximation. From the setup of the problem, you should be able to deduce the values of the zeroth-order terms ##c_{ni}^{(0)}## for the various states ##|\psi_n \rangle##.


damarkk said:
Then, the state is ##|\psi>= c_{100}(t)exp(-iE_{100}t/\hbar)|\psi_{100}>+c_{200}(t)exp(-iE_{200}t/\hbar)|\psi_{200}>+c_{210}(t)exp(-iE_{210}t/\hbar)|\psi_{210}>+c_{211}(t)exp(-iE_{211}t/\hbar)|\psi_{211}>+c_{21-1}(t)exp(-iE_{21-1}t/\hbar)|\psi_{21-1}>##
This looks right.
 
Note that you have to calculate the actual value of the ##c(t)##.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top