Electron in a potential well of specified thickness

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the energy of an electron confined in a one-dimensional infinite potential well of thickness 1nm. The energy is determined using the formula E=(n^2 pi^2 h(bar)^2)/(2m Lz^2), yielding approximately 10E-19 J. To find the probability of locating the electron between 0.1nm and 0.2nm, the wavefunction must be normalized according to the boundary conditions of the well, ensuring that the total probability across the well equals 1. The integral limits for the probability calculation are set from 0.1nm to 0.2nm.

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solas99
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an electron in a potential well of thickness (e.g 1nm) with infinitly high potential barriers. it is in the lowest possible energy state.

to calculate the energy of the electron. i used:

E=(n^2 pi^2 h(bar)^2)/ (2m Lz^2)

which will result in approx 10E-19 j

my question is, how can tackle a situation, when asked to find the probability of finding the electron between 0.1nm and 0.2nm from one side of well?

do i try to use the same equation but change the value of Lz to (0.2-0.1)=0.1nm?
 
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Do you know the wavefunction that governs a particle in this situation? (1 dimensional box conditions, infinite potential well)?
Think about how this wave function is normalised in accordance with the boundary conditions- we say the probability of finding the electron somewhere in the range 0 to L (L=1nm) must be equal to 1. With this normalised wave function you can then ask for the probability of finding the electron in range 0.1nm to 0.2nm. i.e. the limits of your integral for the probability become 0.1nm to 0.2nm.
 

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