Karl86
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Those integrals were infinite too :(PeroK said:Yes, it's tricky. One idea is to go back to your original idea of using the electric field!
Those integrals were infinite too :(PeroK said:Yes, it's tricky. One idea is to go back to your original idea of using the electric field!
Karl86 said:Those integrals were infinite too :(
Karl86 said:It was simply suggested in class I have literally 0 reference on it.
Karl86 said:whereas the expression I need is something like ##C \cdot \log (|r_2-r_1|)##.
PeroK said:You've been quoting a finite answer, though. Where did that come?
It's possible that the question is ill-defined. You've got two "infinite" wires and they start "infinitely" far apart.
You could interpret that different ways. Do they start "far apart" compared to their length? Or, are they "long" compared to the distance they start apart.
The answer you quote, if you take ##C##, just to be some constant of proportionality can be naively obtained from the the potential formula (*). But, that presupposes the problem has a unique, well-defined numerical answer.
(*) I hadn't thought any further than that until you forced me to think about it more clearly.
I suspect if you put different proportions into the ratio of lengths of wires and starting distances you would get different answers, potentially infinite if you take the limit in all cases.
For any finite problem (long wires, far apart), there will be a value of ##C## and an equation related to the log of the final distance apart. Approximately.
Karl86 said:The answer is given: it is ##-\frac{2\lambda^2}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \log(|r_2-r_1|)##. What I am asked is to prove that it can be written like that. How is it you got that expression naively?
You are seeing it in terms of energy to get a certain configuration, but the wires are fixed in a constant position. There are no assumptions on how close or far they are, not infinitely far though, one intersects the xy plane in a point r_1 and the other in a point r_2. What the question seems to point to is they generate a field and this field carries some energy. Calculate it between the planes z=a and z=a+1. Is the way you are trying to see it equivalent to this?PeroK said:You start with one "infinite" wire. You bring a unit of line charge in from "infinity" - and don't worry that the potential is infinite at infinity - and you have the energy to create the configuration, per unit length of the second wire.
But, now it seems very clear, if you released that unit line charge, it has infinite potential energy. So, there is no finite answer.
If, however, you consider the wire long but finite, then eventually the logarithmic potential will cease to hold. The PE of the unit length of charge is, therefore, finite for any finite wire, but tends to infinity for an infinite wire, so the problem is not well-defined.
Karl86 said:You are seeing it in terms of energy to get a certain configuration, but the wires are fixed in a constant position. There are no assumptions on how close or far they are, not infinitely far though, one intersects the xy plane in a point r_1 and the other in a point r_2.
PeroK said:To get that equation - the integral of ##E^2## - you need to neglect a boundary surface integral, which is not valid if the charge distribution is not bounded.
Do you know another equation for electrostatic energy ?
Karl86 said:Ok so you stand by your analysis that it seems not well defined
The field is constant and pushes it away from the wire, the charge never stops, so the KE is never 0. IS that right?PeroK said:What happens if you release a positive point charge in the field of an infinite positively charged wire?
What is the final KE of the charge?
Karl86 said:The field is constant and pushes it away from the wire, the charge never stops