Equivalence Relations on Integers with a Unique Property

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that an equivalence relation ~ on integers, defined by m ~ m + 5 and m ~ m + 8, implies m ~ n for all integers m and n. Participants suggest using repeated applications of the equivalence relation to demonstrate that n ~ n + 1. By establishing that m ~ m + 15 and m ~ m + 16, the proof can be completed, confirming that all integers are equivalent under this relation.

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  • Understanding of equivalence relations in mathematics
  • Familiarity with integer properties and operations
  • Basic knowledge of mathematical induction
  • Experience with problem-solving in abstract algebra
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  • Study the properties of equivalence relations in detail
  • Learn about mathematical induction techniques
  • Explore examples of equivalence relations on different sets
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Students of mathematics, particularly those studying abstract algebra, educators looking for teaching resources, and anyone interested in the properties of equivalence relations on integers.

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This is a question from A consise introduction to pure mathematics (Martin Liebeck)

Hi guys, just stuck on one problem was wondering if someone could lend me hand.

Let ~ be an equivalence relation on all intergers with the property that for all "m" is an element of the set of intergers , we have,

m ~ m +5
and also m ~ m+8

Prove that m~ n for all m, n is an element of intergers.

This is on page 161 of Martin Liebeck's book, number 7.

Im really stuck!
 
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didn't i see this posted a few days ago?

anyways, noinking the solution form those posts, use repeated applications of the equivalence relation to show for any n:
n ~ n+1,

then you're pretty much done, maybe with induction implicit, but it should be reasonably easy to see that any n is equivalent to any m, witr repeated application of the above
 
Last edited:
Hint: can you show m~m+15 and m~m+16? Then you are almost there.
 

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