Equivalence Relations on Integers: Proving Equivalence for All Elements

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving an equivalence relation defined on integers, specifically showing that if \( m \sim m + 5 \) and \( m \sim m + 8 \), then \( m \sim n \) for all integers \( m \) and \( n \). The problem is sourced from a mathematics textbook by Martin Liebeck.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore whether demonstrating \( m \sim m + 1 \) could be a sufficient step. There is a suggestion that the transitive property of equivalence relations may be relevant. One participant proposes that two integers \( m \) and \( n \) are equivalent if \( m - n = 5i + 8j \) for some integers \( i \) and \( j \), and discusses a method to express any integer \( k \) in that form.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their thoughts on the properties of equivalence relations and exploring various approaches to the proof. Some guidance has been offered regarding the structure of the proof, but no consensus has been reached on the specific steps to take.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the need to verify the reflexive, symmetric, and transitive properties of the equivalence relation as part of the proof process.

doggie_Walkes
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This is a question from A consise introduction to pure mathematics (Martin Liebeck)

Hi guys, just stuck on one problem was wondering if someone could lend me hand.

Let ~ be an equivalence relation on all intergers with the property that for all "m" is an element of the set of intergers , we have,

m ~ m +5
and also m ~ m+8

Prove that m~ n for all m, n is an element of intergers.

This is on page 161 of Martin Liebeck's book, number 7.

Im really stuck!
 
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If you could show m~m+1 that would do it, right? Can you show m~m+5 and m~m+8 imply that?
 
doggie_Walkes said:
This is a question from A consise introduction to pure mathematics (Martin Liebeck)

Hi guys, just stuck on one problem was wondering if someone could lend me hand.

Let ~ be an equivalence relation on all intergers with the property that for all "m" is an element of the set of intergers , we have,

m ~ m +5
and also m ~ m+8

Prove that m~ n for all m, n is an element of intergers.

This is on page 161 of Martin Liebeck's book, number 7.

Im really stuck!
For example, 6= 1+ 5 so 1 and 6 are equivalent. But 11= 6+ 5 so, because of the "transitive property, 1 is equivalent to 11. And, since 9= 1+ 8, 9 is also equivalent to 1 and therefore equivalent to 6 and 11. But 9= 4+ 5 so 9 is also equivalent to 9 and therefore to 1, and 6, and 11.

It looks to me like this is saying that two numbers, m and n are equivalent if and only if m= n+ 5i+ 8j for some integers 5 and 8. And that is same as saying m- n= 5i+ 8j. Let k= m-n. If you can show that any integer, k, can be written k= 5i+ 8j for some integers i and j, you have it.

I can show, using the Euclidean division algorithm, that for any integer k, i= -3k and j= 2k will work. Can you get that?
 
Yeah kind of, not 100% sure.

I know its a equibalence relations, so don't we have to prove that it is reflexsive, symmetric, and transitive?
 

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