Evaluating Summation: Find $\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{i+1}f(i)$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the infinite summation $$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{i+1}f(i)$$ where the function $f(n)$ is defined in terms of harmonic numbers and binomial coefficients. Participants explore various approaches, including algebraic manipulations and potential calculus applications, to derive the value of the summation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants express that $f(n)$ can be represented as $$f(n) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{k+1} \binom{n}{k} H_k$$ where $H_k$ is the $k$-th harmonic number.
  • One participant calculates specific values for $f(1)$, $f(2)$, $f(3)$, and $f(4)$, suggesting a pattern that leads to the conjecture that $$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{i+1} f(i) = \ln 2$$.
  • Another participant references a proof from Wikipedia regarding the harmonic numbers and their relation to binomial coefficients.
  • There is a suggestion to switch the order of summation to simplify the evaluation of the infinite series, leading to a logarithmic result.
  • Some participants request proofs or clarifications regarding the identities and transformations used in the discussion, particularly the inverse binomial transform.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

While some participants propose that the summation converges to $\ln 2$, there is no consensus on the methods used to arrive at this conclusion, and some participants express confusion regarding the transformations involved. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the validity of the proposed identities and their implications.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the dependence on definitions of harmonic numbers and binomial coefficients, as well as the potential need for calculus techniques, which some are uncertain about. There are also unresolved mathematical steps in the transformations discussed.

Saitama
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Problem:
Consider a function $f(n)$ defined as:
$$f(n)=\sum_{r=1}^n (-1)^{r+1} \binom{n}{r} \left(\sum_{k=1}^r \frac{1}{k}\right)$$
Find the value of
$$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{i+1}f(i)$$

Attempt:
I write $\sum_{k=1}^r (1/k)=H_r$.

The sum I have to evaluate is
$$f(1)-f(2)+f(3)-f(4)+\cdots$$

I tried writing down a few terms and tried to see the difference of consecutive terms...
$$f(1)=H_1$$
$$f(2)=2H_1-H_2$$
$$f(3)=3H_1-3H_2+H_3$$
$$f(4)=4H_1-6H_2+4H_3+H_4$$
...but I don't see if this helps.

Although I have posted this in the Pre-Algebra and Algebra forum, please feel free to use any Calculus approaches as I am not sure if the problem involves the use of Calculus.

Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
 
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Pranav said:
Problem:
Consider a function $f(n)$ defined as:
$$f(n)=\sum_{r=1}^n (-1)^{r+1} \binom{n}{r} \left(\sum_{k=1}^r \frac{1}{k}\right)$$
Find the value of
$$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{i+1}f(i)$$

Attempt:
I write $\sum_{k=1}^r (1/k)=H_r$.

The sum I have to evaluate is
$$f(1)-f(2)+f(3)-f(4)+\cdots$$

I tried writing down a few terms and tried to see the difference of consecutive terms...
$$f(1)=H_1$$
$$f(2)=2H_1-H_2$$
$$f(3)=3H_1-3H_2+H_3$$
$$f(4)=4H_1-6H_2+4H_3+H_4$$
...but I don't see if this helps.

Although I have posted this in the Pre-Algebra and Algebra forum, please feel free to use any Calculus approaches as I am not sure if the problem involves the use of Calculus.

Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

Your approach is very good because is... $f(1) = H_{1} = 1$

$f(2) = 2\ H_{1} - H_{2} = 2 - 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}$

$f(3) = 3\ H_{1} - 3\ H_{2} + H_{3} = 3 - 3 - \frac{3}{2} + 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{3}$ ... and proceeding in this way You arrive at the very suggestive relation...

$\displaystyle f(n) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{k+1} \binom{n}{k}\ H_{k} = \frac{1}{n}\ (1)$... so that is...$\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{i + 1} f(i) = \ln 2\ (2)$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Switch the order of the inner sums and use $\displaystyle \sum\limits_{k \le r \le n} (-1)^r\binom{n}{r} = \frac{k (-1)^k}{n} \binom{n}{k}.$

$$\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \sum_{n \ge 1}\sum_{1 \le r \le n} \sum_{1 \le k \le r} \frac{(-1)^{n+r}}{k} \binom{n}{r} & = \sum_{n \ge 1}\sum_{1 \le k \le n} \sum_{k \le r \le n} \frac{(-1)^{n+r}}{k} \binom{n}{r} \\& = \sum_{n \ge 1}\sum_{1 \le k \le n}\frac{(-1)^{k+n}}{n} \binom{n}{k} \\& = \sum_{n \ge 1} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} \\& = \log(2).\end{aligned} $$​
 
@Prometheus

Could you give a proof of that identity?
 
chisigma said:
Your approach is very good because is... $f(1) = H_{1} = 1$

$f(2) = 2\ H_{1} - H_{2} = 2 - 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}$

$f(3) = 3\ H_{1} - 3\ H_{2} + H_{3} = 3 - 3 - \frac{3}{2} + 1 + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{3}$ ... and proceeding in this way You arrive at the very suggestive relation...

$\displaystyle f(n) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{k+1} \binom{n}{k}\ H_{k} = \frac{1}{n}\ (1)$... so that is...$\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{i + 1} f(i) = \ln 2\ (2)$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$

Awesome! :cool:

I never thought I was so close to the answer, thanks a lot chisigma! :)

Random Variable said:
There is a proof that $ \displaystyle H_{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n}(-1)^{k-1} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k} $ on Wikipedia page for the harmonic numbers.

Harmonic number - Wikipedia, the free encyclopediaThen by applying the inverse binomial transform,

$$ \frac{1}{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{k-1} \binom{n}{k} H_{k} $$Binomial Transform -- from Wolfram MathWorld
Hi Random Variable, thank you very much for your input. :)

I have never heard of inverse binomial transform before but it looks like a useful technique. I seem to have trouble figuring out how did you use it here.

We have
$$H_{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n}(-1)^{k-1} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k} $$
From the Wolfram page you quote, $b_n$ should be of the form $\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^{n-k} a_k$ but I have $(-1)^{k-1}$ instead of $(-1)^{n-k}$. :confused:

Sorry if this is silly but I have never seen that representation of $H_n$ and the binomial transform. :o

Thanks!
 
@ PranavFirst let $a_{0}=b_{0} = 0 $.

Then multiply both sides of $ \displaystyle H_{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{k-1} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k} $ by $(-1)^{n+1}$.

Then $ \displaystyle (-1)^{n+1} H_{n} = (-1)^{n-1} H_{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{n+k} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{n-k} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k}$.

Now take the inverse binomial transform.
 
Last edited:
Random Variable said:
@ PranavFirst let $a_{0}=b_{0} = 0 $.

Then multiply both sides of $ \displaystyle H_{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{k-1} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k} $ by $(-1)^{n+1}$.

Then $ \displaystyle (-1)^{n+1} H_{n} = (-1)^{n-1} H_{n} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{n+k} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k} = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (-1)^{n-k} \binom{n}{k} \frac{1}{k}$.

Now take the inverse binomial transform.

Thanks a lot Random Variable! :)
 

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