Exact diagonalization by Bogoliubov transformation

arojo
Messages
16
Reaction score
0
Hello all,

I am developing a model of multiple gaps in a square lattice. I simplified the associated Hamiltonian to make it quadratic. In this approximation it is given by,

<br /> H =<br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> \xi_\mathbf{k} &amp; -\sigma U_1 &amp; -U_2 &amp; -U_2\\<br /> -\sigma U_1 &amp; \xi_{\mathbf{k}+(\pi,\pi)} &amp; 0 &amp; 0\\<br /> - U_2 &amp; 0 &amp; \xi_{\mathbf{k}+(\pi/2,0)} &amp; 0\\<br /> - U_2 &amp; 0 &amp; 0 &amp; \xi_{\mathbf{k}+(0,\pi/2)}<br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

And my Nambu operator is given by,

<br /> ψ_\mathbf{k} = <br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> c_{\mathbf{k},\sigma} \\<br /> c_{\mathbf{k}+(\pi,\pi),\sigma} \\<br /> c_{\mathbf{k}+(\pi/2,0),\sigma} \\<br /> c_{\mathbf{k}+(0,\pi/2),\sigma}<br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

I tried to diagonalized by making three Bogoliubov transformations, the first to diagonalize the upper right submatrix of H, and then the two others (a sort of nested transformations). But I get a lengthy result, what I would like to know if there is a smart transformation which allows me to write

H = A_1^\dagger A_2^\dagger A_3^\dagger D A_3 A_2 A_1

or simply

H = U^\dagger D U

Or the only way is to use just brute force?
Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Diagonalizing a 4x4 matrix can be done analytically, as the eigenvalues result as solutions of a fourth order polynomial which may be of special form. Have you tried?
 
Hi DrDu,

Actually I started by doing precisely that, but I got a messy result. Which certainly is analytical but hard "to read", at least from the point of view of getting an idea of what is going on without doing the numerics.
Actually I should rephrase my question as is there any elegant representation or expression of the diagonalization as for example the one obtained in BCS Superconductivity?
Thanks
 
Last edited:
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top