uppaladhadium
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We know that log(1+x) = x+((x^2)/2)+((x^3)/3)+....((x^n)/n)+...
Could anybody please tell me the proof
Could anybody please tell me the proof
The Taylor series expansion for log(1+x) is derived as log(1+x) = x - (x^2)/2 + (x^3)/3 - (x^4)/4 + ... This series can be proven using the integral representation log(1+x) = ∫dx/(1+x), where the series for 1/(1+x) is expanded as 1 - x + x^2 - x^3 + ... Integrating this term by term from 0 to x yields the Taylor series. The discussion also raises questions about the derivatives of log(1+x) at a specific point a, confirming that f'(a) = 0 is not generally true for a > -1.
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uppaladhadium said:In taylor series if f(x)=log(1+x) then is f'(a)=0?
and is f(a)=log(1+a)