Expectation Value For a Given Wave Function

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the expectation value of position, , for a given wave function associated with a delta-function potential. The wave function is provided, and the context involves evaluating an integral that represents the expectation value in quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to evaluate the integral of x|\psi(x)|^2, splitting it into two parts due to the absolute value of x. They express confusion over obtaining an infinite result and question the physical implications of this outcome.
  • Some participants question the limits of the integral and suggest re-evaluating the behavior of the function as x approaches infinity.
  • Another participant provides an alternative approach to the integral, leading to a different interpretation regarding the symmetry of the function involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants engaging in clarifying the mathematical steps involved. Some guidance has been offered regarding the evaluation of limits and the properties of the functions involved, but no consensus has been reached on the interpretation of the results.

Contextual Notes

The original poster expresses concern about the physicality of the expectation value being infinite, indicating a potential misunderstanding in their calculations or assumptions about the wave function's properties.

CanIExplore
Messages
97
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Find the expectation value of x (Find <x>) given the wave function:
[tex]\psi(x)[/tex]=[sqrt(m*alpha)/h_bar]e^[(-m*alpha*|x|)/(h_bar)^2]
This wave function represents the single bound state for the delta-function potential.
It's the solution to the shrodinger equation given the potential V(x)=-alpha*\delta(x)

The Attempt at a Solution



So this amounts to evaluating the integral of x|\psi(x)|^2 from negative infinity to positive infinity. Because of the absolute value of x, I split the integral into two parts. The first integral has limits from negative infinity to 0 and the second integral has limits from 0 to infinity. The first integral is of the form xe^cx and the second is xe^(-cx) where c is a constant. This is evaluated simply using integration by parts which gives me [-(x/c)e^(-cx)] - [(1/c)^2]e^(-cx) for the second integral. But when I plug in my limits, from 0 to infinity you'll notice I get negative infinity minus (1/c)^2. This doesn't make much sense to me. Since we're talking about a BOUND state, the expectation value of the position should be finite shouldn't it? Actually if we measure any physical quantity of a particle, it must always be finite. I think, or else it wouldn't make much physical sense. So I might be doing something wrong in the math or maybe I'm missing something else. Could someone please help me understand the results or even correct me if I've done something wrong because I can't seem to see it. Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Let me see if I understand correctly. Your problem is that

[tex]\left[ x e^{-c x} \right]_0^{\infty}[/tex]

yields an infinite result? I think you should rethink the value of

[tex]\lim_{x->\infty} x e^{-c x}[/tex].
 
Hmm, I get

[tex]\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}\int_{-\infty}^\infty x\exp\left[-\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar} |x|\right]dx=\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}\left(\int_{-\infty}^0x\exp\left[\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}x\right]dx+\int_0^\infty x\exp\left[-\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}x\right]dx\right)[/tex]

[tex]=2\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}\int_0^\infty x\exp\left[-\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}x\right]dx=-\frac{2\hbar}{m^2\alpha^2}\left(m\alpha x\exp\left[-\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}x\right]+\hbar\right)_{x=0}^{x=\infty}=2\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}\cdot\frac{\hbar^2}{m^2\alpha^2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar}\int_{-\infty}^\infty x\exp\left[-\frac{m\alpha}{\hbar} |x|\right]dx=\frac{2\hbar}{m\alpha}[/tex]
 
NanakiXIII said:
Let me see if I understand correctly. Your problem is that

[tex]\left[ x e^{-c x} \right]_0^{\infty}[/tex]

yields an infinite result? I think you should rethink the value of

[tex]\lim_{x->\infty} x e^{-c x}[/tex].

You're absolutely right, I see my mistake.

I realized that this problem is far simpler since xe^(-|x|) is an odd function the integral just comes out to be zero. Thanks for the replies you guys.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 30 ·
2
Replies
30
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K