Explaining Complex Integration: If \Gamma Is the Closed Path

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around complex integration, specifically evaluating the integral of the function f(z) = (1 - e^(iz)) / z^2 along a closed contour, Γ, in the complex plane. Participants are exploring the implications of Cauchy's Theorem and the conditions under which the integral may equal zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the holomorphic nature of the function f(z) within the contour and question the necessity of defining a new domain for the application of Cauchy's Theorem. There is also a consideration of the shape of the domain and its implications for the theorem's applicability.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants questioning the assumptions made about the contour and the function's analyticity. Some guidance has been offered regarding the movement of contours and the conditions under which integrals remain unchanged, but no consensus has been reached on the specific application to the problem at hand.

Contextual Notes

There are references to the limitations of Cauchy's Theorem concerning star-shaped domains and the implications of the contour's shape on the integral's evaluation. Participants express uncertainty about the definitions and techniques available in their coursework.

latentcorpse
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If \Gamma is the closed path as follows:
from \delta to R along the positive real axis then around the semi circle of radius -R on the upper half plane to -R on the negative real axis then along the negative real axis to -\delta then around the semi circle of radius \delta in the upper half plane and back to \delta on the positive real axis.

If f(z)=\frac{1-e^{iz}}{z^2}, explain why \int_{\Gamma} f(z) dz=0?

I was thinking of finding a domain,U, for f that was also a semi-annulus in the upper half plane but with outer radius much greater than R (say 1000R) and inner radius infinitesimaly small. Then U is star shaped if we pick the star centre at (0,1000R). f:U \rightarrow \mathbb{C} will be holomorphic and so we can use Cauchy's Theorem to give the answer - but it doesn't seem like a very rigorous definition of U.

can anyone advise me?
 
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Isn't f(z) already holomorphic on the domain in the contour? Why do you want to define another contour?
 
latentcorpse said:
If \Gamma is the closed path as follows:
from \delta to R along the positive real axis then around the semi circle of radius -R on the upper half plane to -R on the negative real axis then along the negative real axis to -\delta then around the semi circle of radius \delta in the upper half plane and back to \delta on the positive real axis.

If f(z)=\frac{1-e^{iz}}{z^2}, explain why \int_{\Gamma} f(z) dz=0?

I was thinking of finding a domain,U, for f that was also a semi-annulus in the upper half
plane but with outer radius much greater than R (say 1000R) and inner radius infinitesimaly small. Then U is star shaped if we pick the star centre at (0,1000R). f:U \rightarrow \mathbb{C} will be holomorphic and so we can use Cauchy's Theorem to give the answer - but it doesn't seem like a very rigorous definition of U.

can anyone advise me?
f(z)= \frac{1- e^{iz}}{z^2} is analytic everywhere except z= 0 and that is outside the original path. Changing the diameter of the the two circles wont' change that.

Is the problem that the interior is not "star shaped" (there exist at least one point such that the straight line from that point to every other point is in the region)?

First, no matter how large you make one circle or how small you make the other, it will never be "star shaped". Second, Cauchy's Theorem does not apply only to star shaped regions.
 
the only part of my notes i can find that says cauchy's theorem doesn't need a star shaped domain is called the "contour moving technique"? but that doesn't seem much use here...
 
anybody?
 
What's the 'contour moving technique'?
 
It's impossible to know "where you are" in your course and so we don't know what you have available to use. But it is true that as long as you move a contour "continuously" without crossing any discontinuities of the function, the integral around that contour remains the same. The integral around any "Jordan curve" (basically no self-intersections) is 0 as long as the function is analytic inside and on the curve.
 

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