Explaining Faraday's Law: Why ε=2∅/Δt?

HelpMeh · Apr 19, 2012

Hi

Could someone explain why

ε=Δ∅/Δt

becomes 2∅/Δt?? i don't see how the change in magnetic flux is 2∅.

BruceW · Apr 19, 2012

the plane of the coil is flipped so that the normal to the plane becomes opposite. Therefore the flux is negative of what it was before, so the total change in flux is twice the absolute value of flux through the coil.

Explaining Faraday's Law: Why ε=2∅/Δt?

Attachments

Discussion

Graduate Horizontal component of the electric field of an infinite uniformly charged plane

Undergrad Measured Spectrum of Stopped Wood Organ Pipe Shows ALL Overtones

Graduate Does a moving particle count as a wave?

Undergrad Is Water's Volume Expansion Upon Freezing an Intrinsic Property?

High School Is it safe to fly in a spinning hollow asteroid?

Graduate Electromagnetic Skrymion Created

Insights Revisiting the Velocity-Time Function

Insights Remote Operated Gate Control System

Insights AI Enriched Problem Solving

Insights Thinking Outside The Box Versus Knowing What’s In The Box

Insights Why Entangled Photon-Polarization Qubits Violate Bell’s Inequality

Insights Quantum Entanglement is a Kinematic Fact, not a Dynamical Effect

Explaining Faraday's Law: Why ε=2∅/Δt?

Attachments

Discussion

Similar threads

Undergrad Faraday's Law Equation: Derivative vs Delta

Undergrad B-Fields: Deriving Faraday's Law & Why No Work?

Undergrad Reason for Opposite Signs for Terms in Faraday's Law and Ampere's Law

Undergrad Why is there no negative sign in the Faraday's Law stated here

Graduate Faraday's Law with Zero Resistance Current Loop

Graduate How Does the Vector Potential Influence Faraday's Law of Induction?

Graduate Faraday's law or Lorenzt force?

Graduate Why Faraday's law works with superconductors?

Graduate Faraday's Law & Motional EMF Confusion

Graduate Some confusion of Faraday's law of induction.