- #1

ChanceLiterature

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This statement has always confused me. Now my confusion is coming home to roast while we cover EMF.

If we consider work mathematically as ∫f.dl and require integral to be path independent then of course the B-field does no work.

However, it seems like there is a deeper meaning to B-fields do no work. Is there?

Tied into this is faradays law. Faraday's Law can be "derived" from emf (it's in quotes because I understand faradays is first principles). In this derivation emf force is stated to be closed integral ∫E.dl. I do not understand why this why emf or this induced force around the loop is necessarily due to an E-field as opposed to to B-field.

If we consider work mathematically as ∫f.dl and require integral to be path independent then of course the B-field does no work.

However, it seems like there is a deeper meaning to B-fields do no work. Is there?

Tied into this is faradays law. Faraday's Law can be "derived" from emf (it's in quotes because I understand faradays is first principles). In this derivation emf force is stated to be closed integral ∫E.dl. I do not understand why this why emf or this induced force around the loop is necessarily due to an E-field as opposed to to B-field.

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